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Sarah is NOT the mother of Rebecca; Rebecca is NOT the mother of Leah or Rachel; Leah is Not the mother of Judah's Canaanite wife and Rachel is NOT the mother of Joseph's Egyptian wife.

There is Not a single list genealogical based on mother and daughters in the Torah and, while everyone likes to argue whether or nor Ruth was really Jewish, there is absolutely no proof that the mother of Boaz was Jewish.

Finally, Jezebel never converted to Judaism, so how could a gentile be the mother of two kings of Israel if Judaism passes thru the mother?

mbloch
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Dror Ben Ami
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    From the giving of the Torah onwards – Lee Mar 30 '16 at 08:40
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    A convert is Jewish also. If a woman converts her children are Jewish. – sabbahillel Mar 30 '16 at 09:50
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    The mother of Avraham alson was not jew.... matrilinial is not a genetic problem. Conversion is possible. You write that Ruth was "not really Jewish", Ruth is the paradigm of conversion. The examples before Matan Torah are of an other order. Not clear what contradicts what. – kouty Mar 30 '16 at 10:43
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    Who says Sarah, Rivka, Rochel, and Leah were "Jewish"??? – Yehoshua Mar 30 '16 at 12:22
  • Note that the kings of Israel were in rebellion against Hashem and the dynasties were wiped out. What they did or did not do has nothing to do with Judaism. – sabbahillel Mar 30 '16 at 20:15
  • No one has explained how the two sons of Jezebel were kings of Israel....also, there is no such thing as conversions in the 5 Books of Moses. Exodus 24 was NOT a conversion....the people were called Beni Israel and they worshiped the god of Abraham , Isaac and Jacob before AND after Exodus 24,,,so where is the conversion? No procedure for conversions is given and there is not one single convert mentioned by name or a genealogy given of any convert.... – Dror Ben Ami Apr 01 '16 at 03:51

1 Answers1

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The system of matrilineal descent began with the giving of the Torah at Sinai. Prior to that, Jewishness was a matter of tribal identity, therefore patrilineal. (And people could be kicked out of the tribe, as Esav was.)

We believe that post-Sinai, any women who came from outside of the Jewish people went through a conversion.

You say We have no proof that Boaz's mother was Jewish. We have no proof that she wasn't! The book of Ruth is telling the backstory of King David, so it shows a patrilineal tree from him all the way back to Peretz. Monarchy is tied to tribal affiliation, so we're tracking the patrilineal tree.

Shalom
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    There is an assumption that Ruth went through conversion when she first married Machlon and that Orpah also did, yet Naomi told them they could return to their people. If Jezebel's conversion wasn't "sincere" then maybe Yehoram wasn't "properly" Jewish either. If she converted sincerely then chose to sin later then that is a different matter. (If Orpah went through conversion, maybe Goliath was halachically Jewish) – CashCow Mar 30 '16 at 11:53
  • This answer is subject to dispute http://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/26066/759 – Double AA Mar 31 '16 at 00:14