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Many are accustomed to the fact that in rabbinic Judaism a Jew is one who is born of a Jewish woman.

But were there opposite opinions? Poskim of post-Talmudic time are of also interest.

Al Berko
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Dankl-Franl bar Uri-Hirschl
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    Not fully, but related: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/26066/27180 and https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/69863/27180 – Shmuel Jul 03 '22 at 13:48
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    Why is this a "provocative question"? – Shmuel Jul 03 '22 at 13:48
  • Here's why: the decision on matrilineal descent was ruled by Ezra, upon his return from Babylon, in the 5th century BCE. Rabbinic Judaism developed in the 2nd century CE out of the Pharisee movement that started around the Maccabean revolt in the 2nd century BCE. Therefore there are no rabbinic arguments on this specific issue, Ezra's decree was accepted unanimously. – Al Berko Jul 03 '22 at 17:14
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    @al berko the Gemara derives it from a passuk in the Torah https://www.sefaria.org/Kiddushin.68b?lang=bi – Chatzkel Jul 03 '22 at 17:16
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    It is worth mentioning that Biblical Judaism (pre-Babylon exile) was patrilineal in all senses. IIRC, not a single case of conversion is mentioned in the scriptures, while most of our foremothers were explicitly gentile. – Al Berko Jul 03 '22 at 17:17
  • @Chatzkel The Gemara merely finds scriptural support for already existing practice. Note that the verse does not say that explicitly, so the rule is relied on the verse posteriourly, not "derived from it" IMHO. This is how I learn the difference between "learns from" and "relies on". For example, "not in heaven" and "Pikuach Nefesh" are both a posterior reliance, not teaching. – Al Berko Jul 03 '22 at 17:23
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    Note that AlBerko is rejecting the rabbinic Judaism approach – robev Jul 03 '22 at 18:32
  • @AlBerko Conversion is discussed - for example circumcisions with Abraham. It is possible to argue no-one was "Jewish" until they "converted". Though there might be no scriptural reference to women converting, it would be hard to argue they didn't if the men did. – msj121 Jul 03 '22 at 18:33
  • FWIW, karaites follow patrilineal descent. – Maurice Mizrahi Jul 03 '22 at 19:02
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    @robev How? Both my examples were instituted at some specific time by referring to a verse(s) while other rabbis did not accept it. – Al Berko Jul 03 '22 at 19:17
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    You failed to provide any proof that these were instituted and it was at some specific time. Traditional Judaism always took it for granted that this is the law that Hashem gave Moshe. You're denying the oral Torah. Which rabbis didn't accept matrilineal descent? Name one. – robev Jul 03 '22 at 21:03
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  • "not a single case of conversion is mentioned in the scriptures" Literally Rus. 2) Vayikra 24:10 is an explicit reference to exclusively matrilineal descent. The Ben Ish Mitzri was a Jew because of his Jewish mother, despite being a non-Jew patrilineally.
    • – Yehuda Jul 04 '22 at 11:06
  • Wasn't there a tanna or amorah that paskend this way (obscure source?) – Yehoshua Aug 24 '23 at 23:39