Making a Berachah on rabbinically prohibited foods

Asked Jul 05 '12 at 21:58

Active Jul 06 '12 at 00:41

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Should one refrain from making a Berachah on rabbinically prohibited foods, or does that rule only apply to biblically prohibited foods?

edited Jul 05 '12 at 22:07

msh210

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asked Jul 05 '12 at 21:58

Seth J

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Can you cite where the rule is applied to biblically prohibited foods? – Isaac Moses Jul 05 '12 at 22:00
Not until I can get to a PC. #aboveaverageintelligencebutnotquiteageniusphone – Seth J Jul 05 '12 at 22:11
related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/17535/759 http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/14905/759 – Double AA Jul 06 '12 at 00:28
Also related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/35861 – msh210 Mar 04 '14 at 02:25

1 Answers1

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אכל דבר איסור, אף על פי שאינו אסור אלא מדרבנן, אין מזמנין עליו ואין מברכין עליו לא בתחלה ולא בסוף. (שולחן ערוך או"ח סימן קצו:א)‏
If one ate something prohibited, even if it was only prohibited rabbinically, one does not combine him to a zimmun, nor would he say a beginning or after blessing [on that food]. (Shulchan Aruch OC 196:1)

answered Jul 06 '12 at 00:41

Double AA

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