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To what degree is this a problem if: 1) your level of kashrut is the same as this person who's cooking and 2) They do not cook on Shabbat?

Edit: To clarify, this didn't seem like a problem to me until someone told me it's not allowed. Now I'm looking for sources on that.

ReotheNew
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  • If they do not cook on Shabbat then what's the connection to your eating it on Shabbat? – Double AA Aug 18 '17 at 01:52
  • I have no clue. That's why I'm looking for a source. – ReotheNew Aug 18 '17 at 01:53
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    I'm still not sure I'm getting your case exactly, but maybe the concern is someone who doesn't keep Shabbos is in some ways like a gentile so maybe bishul akum applies to all their cooking? – Double AA Aug 18 '17 at 01:55
  • In that case, would turning on the oven or stove for them be good enough? – ReotheNew Aug 18 '17 at 01:57
  • If the person who cooked it is Jewish, I believe that you may never eat that food. – DanF Aug 18 '17 at 16:48
  • @ReotheNew It's very likely forbidden for reasons of kashrus. For reasons of Shabbos, see here https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/44693/can-you-derive-benefit-from-another-jews-melacha-if-it-happened-a-long-time-ago – SAH Aug 24 '18 at 05:32

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