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It seems as though virtually all seforim (especially those written by Acharonim and earlier) refer to G-d as either Hakodosh Boruch Hu or Ribono Shel Olom, and never as "Hashem." Similarly, I don't think I've ever come across a single instance of G-d being referred to as Hashem in the Talmud or Midrash.

Is this because "Hashem" is a relatively modern term? If so, who came up with it, and when did it start becoming normative?

If not, is there some reason why HKBH and RSO are the preferred terms in rabbinic writings?

Isaac Moses
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Qoheles
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    Maybe because "Hashem" doesn't mean G-d? I think it's really only English-speaking Jews who refer to G-d as Hashem. For instance, in Yiddish He's often called the דער אויבערשטער / Der Eybershter. – ezra Aug 09 '17 at 14:56
  • Qoheles, why don't you check out this question and answer elsewhere on this site. The Tetragrammaton (YKVK) does appear in the Talmud, and it's rendered as a double-yud. (יי). This would most likely be pronounced "Hashem." – ezra Aug 09 '17 at 15:02
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    The Sefer HaChinuch talks about Hashem. He was a Rishon. E.g.g תיז. מצות אחדות השם. Also in 6511 - כאשר ידענו מתורתנו שזהו דרך השם וזה חפצו מבריותיו . Also תקסא. שלא יבוא עמוני ומואבי בקהל השם – Danny Schoemann Aug 09 '17 at 15:04
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    So does the Ralbag - a Rishon - E.g. לא הסכים השם ית' שיהיה בחיי משה and the Rambam. – Danny Schoemann Aug 09 '17 at 15:06
  • Medrash Tanchuma Br. 66 - דָּבָר אַחֵר, מְבָרֲכֶיךָ בָּרוּךְ, תָּנֵי עוֹבֵד כּוֹכָבִים הַמְבָרֵךְ אֶת הַשֵּׁם עוֹנִים אַחֲרָיו אָמֵן, בַּשֵּׁם אֵין עוֹנִין אַחֲרָיו אָמֵן and 91 - אֲמַר לֵיהּ הֲדָא הִיא וְלֹא כָּל שֶׁכֵּן לְהַלָּן שֶׁהוּא מַזְכִּיר אֶת הַשֵּׁם עוֹשִׂין אוֹתוֹ סְנִיף, כָּאן שֶׁאֵינוֹ מַזְכִּיר אֶת הַשֵּׁם אֵין עוֹשִׂין אוֹתוֹ סְנִיף or in 98 אָמַר רַבִּי יִצְחָק הַכֹּל בְּקִוּוּי, יִסּוּרִין בְּקִוּוּי, קְדֻשַּׁת הַשֵּׁם בְּקִוּוּי, זְכוּת אָבוֹת בְּקִוּוּי, תַּאֲוָתוֹ שֶׁל עוֹלָם הַבָּא בְּקִוּוּי. – Danny Schoemann Aug 09 '17 at 15:08
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    @DannySchoemann I don't think that last source is using Hashem to refer to God. It's referring to blessing the name of God. Similar to how we say Barukh Shemo. – Double AA Aug 09 '17 at 15:09
  • What about Brachot 12 - הניחא לרב דאמר כל ברכה שאין בה הזכרת השם אינה ברכה - I really don't understand what you are trying to ask. – Danny Schoemann Aug 09 '17 at 15:13
  • Interesting question! I have a feeling that the use of "Hashem" may be relatively older than we surmise. In the Avoda section (and, IIRC, they are citing the Mishna in Yoma) the Kohen Gadol's request started with Ana Vashem. It's not exactly "Hashem" but "Bashem" maybe is short for "Ba Hashem"? – DanF Aug 09 '17 at 16:08
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    @DanF By the Avodah we say both Hashem and Bashem, but they are both referring to the actual name of Hashem (as the Kohen Gadol actually pronounced Hashem's name), so the term Hashem (literally; name) rightfully applies. The question was when is God himself referred to as Hashem. – lionscribe Aug 10 '17 at 05:49
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    @Danny The Gemara is referring to saying the name God, so the term Hashem (literally; name) rightfully applies. The question was where do we find God himself being referred to as Hashem. – lionscribe Aug 10 '17 at 05:51
  • the main sourcr is perhaps onkelos. – kouty Aug 10 '17 at 09:04
  • Want to point out, like "hasheim" and "basheim" mentioned in YK Mussaf, the idioms are "qiddush hasheim" and "chillul hasheim". We can sanctify or desecrate G-d's, name, His reputation. But it's meaningless to talk about "chillul Hashem" -- G-d himself cannot be desecrated. (I therefore didn't capitalize, and wrote the tzeirei using my usual "ei" rather than the usual Judeo-English reference to G-d, "Hashem".) – Micha Berger Aug 10 '17 at 15:09
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    @kouty: Where does Unqelus use "השם"? In current editions, we have "יי" and in earlier manuscripts, the triangle of yuds that was its predecessor that Xian polemics put out of fashion. Which would indicate the original was likely shem havayah, the tetragrammaton, written outright. No? https://www.sefaria.org/Onkelos_Genesis.1-2?lang=bi – Micha Berger Aug 10 '17 at 15:13
  • @DanF: Ba- is indeed the prefix that replaces "be-" + "ha". Like "la-" for "le-" + "ha-". That said, kouty is correct when noting that there we are talking about the kohein gadol's use of the name to get us kaparah. The kohein gadol said it in preface to saying the pasuq "כי ביום הזה יחפר עליכם לטהר אתכם מכל חטאתיכם, לפני ---- תטהרו", where I replaced his using the sheim hameforash with dashes. The masses in the BHMQ "when they heard the name" would declare "Barukh Sheim Kevod Malkhuso leOlam vaEd". Hasheim in that mussaf means "the name", not G-d. – Micha Berger Aug 10 '17 at 15:23
  • @ezra - what you are saying is IMO correct. In Eretz Yisroel today, השם is used mostly by non-religious or poorly educated people. The modern usage appears to have come from the non-religious, who did not care so much for the idea of G-d and was absorbed by many other incoming immigrants who were first learning ivrit. Learned people tend to use "Rebono Shel Olam" or "HaKodesh BH". Many of the examples cited above are incorrect or out of context. For example: השם ית is not the same as stam השם , and בשם is something else entirely, דרך השם is an idiom. No time/room to elaborate. –  Nov 26 '17 at 08:47
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    @Alter - Yes, exactly. "Hashem" just means "the Name" so saying "may Hashem bless you" etc. would be the same as saying "may the Name bless you" and that just doesn't make sense. It would be better to just use the English word G-d or L-rd, or use a Hebrew alternative such as RSO or HKBH. There are several other alternatives such as the Creator, Der Eybershter in Yiddish ("The Creator") and just Adonoy/Adonai if you're being very serious. (On a different topic, this might lead one to ask a question if you can use Adonoy in everyday speech when you are actually talking about G-d.) – ezra Nov 27 '17 at 03:45
  • this might lead one to ask a question... I lived in EY for 18 years and encountered ever sort of Jew, of every religious stripe. If not when davening, the a-d form seemed to be used only among certain sephardic groups, and not generally the well educated among them - it is a Kinoi and generally should not be used, IMO. –  Nov 27 '17 at 03:55
  • @ezra what about using HaShem as a reference to the name יהוה? Like in Vayikra 24:11 or Devarim 28:58, or all the verses in which G-d talks about ‘My Name’ or people in the Tenach talking about ‘His Name’ or people calling upon His Name etc. I agree it isn’t a title for G-d like Adonai, nor a real substitute (appelation), but it is a way of refering to Him as יהוה, without pronouncing it or even spelling it out (as Yud-Hey-Vav-Hey). With that being said the Tenach uses so many titles to refer to Him, that refering to Him as ‘the Name; i.e. HaShem’ seems so unpersonal. – Levi Dec 18 '18 at 21:42

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At first glance one may point to Berachos 12a:

אמר רבה בר חניננא סבא משמיה דרב המתפלל כשהוא כורע כורע בברוך וכשהוא זוקף זוקף בשם

Rabbah Bar Chininna Sabbah said in the name of Rav: When one is davening - when he bows, he bows at Baruch, and when he straightens, he straightens at the Name

where בשם is the grammatically correct way to stick a ב in front of a word already prefixed with a ה.

However, this is already predated by several Mishnayos in Yoma, such as אנא השם in 3:8 and 6:2, or לשם חטאת in 4:1.

It is entirely possible, though, that all of these are later printers inserting their own euphemisms for the שם המפורש over older versions that spelled out the Name. However, if these versions are accurate (which I tend to believe, as they spell out לשם or השם or בשם instead of לה׳ or ה׳ or בה׳, respectively), then this would answer your question.

DonielF
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  • This answer is not entirely incorrect: בשם is using a preposition - ב - and means "at the name of", Same with השם .לשם is a noun used as substitute for G-d - very different usage. –  Nov 26 '17 at 08:52
  • בשם means before YHWH, therefore שם refers to YHWH, therefore it substitutes it. Doniel's right. We use it exactly the same way, substituting YHWH with "השם", like in "השם שומרך", meaning the holy name comes here. – Al Berko Nov 30 '17 at 15:47