A man is half a person (source)

Question

I often hear Jews, including Jewish "Rabbis", say that a man is half a person. (And his wife is his other half)

What are the sources for this?

I know only of sources that a man is not a man with out his wife, but nothing about a half.
Yevamot 63a

Rabbi Elazar said: Any man who does not have a wife is not a man, as it is stated: “Male and female He created them…and called their name Adam”(Genesis 5:2)

Could you please [edit] in more detail about where you've heard of this concept and why you suspect it may be based on Judaism? — Isaac Moses, Aug 04 '17 at 18:24
Do you mean "half" in a mathematical sense? A halachic one? Yevamos 62b says that an unmarried man is lacking many things but that isn't about his status as a complete human male under the law. — rosends, Aug 04 '17 at 19:10
It's not a question for this SE site, but "Where did the common expression "...so where's your better half?" originate?" has me curious now.. — Gary, Aug 06 '17 at 02:59
@Gary I guess "half" was from Adam and Hava , "better" is probably a machlokes — hazoriz, Aug 06 '17 at 03:01
I've seen this on Chabad.org before, that a man and his wife are two halves of the same soul, but I don't recall it giving a source. Maybe related to Yerushalmi Bikkurim 3:3, that a newlywed is forgiven of his sins - as he is now a new person? — DonielF, Aug 06 '17 at 05:22
As for ""better" is probably a machlokes," I'd take a look at the bottom of BM 59a before you commit to that. "A person should always be concerned for the honor of his wife..." — DonielF, Aug 06 '17 at 05:25
@DonielF most is sources explaining honor say to spend more money on her (and not to hit her) https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/71488/5120 , is there not a midrash that a Hossid divorced his wife who was a Hossid they each remarried and each man became like his wife (I guess it took time so there was a moment of time when the husband was better) — hazoriz, Aug 06 '17 at 05:37
(Is one sefer considered "most sources"?) I'm not familiar with that Midrash. You're saying that there was a couple that was divorced and each remarried someone else, or back to each other? Either way, I'm not sure I understand your inference. — DonielF, Aug 06 '17 at 05:45
@DonielF that one Saifer brings soirces show me someone who says differently, see end of this https://www.sefaria.org/Bereishit_Rabbah.17.7?lang=bi — hazoriz, Aug 06 '17 at 05:50

score 5 · Accepted Answer · answered Aug 07 '17 at 22:42

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The expression פלג גופא in reference to a person without a spouse is in the Zohar Volume 3 in several places (7b, 109b, and 296a).

Although there is some discussion in the comments here about פלג meaning half vs. part, the typical English translation of that expression would be "half a body."

Of course it is quoted approvingly in many other places.

answered Aug 07 '17 at 22:42

Yishai

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https://www.sefaria.org/search?q=%20פלג%20גופא%20&filters=Kabbalah&var=1&sort=c – hazoriz Aug 07 '17 at 23:03
+1 This of course leads into: A man in love is incomplete until he has married. Then he's finished. Zsa Zsa Gabor. Great sheva brachos opener. – user6591 Aug 08 '17 at 13:52

score 2 · Answer 2 · answered Aug 04 '17 at 19:36

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In Sefer HaShem (p. 17), the Rokeah quotes the passage in Yevamot 63a as saying that a bachelor is not a complete man:

כדאמרינן ביבמות (סג, א) כל מי שאין לו אשה אינו אדם שלם

As we say in Yevamot (63a): anyone who doesn't have a wife, is not a complete person.

This idea, that man is in some way incomplete without a wife is stated in numerous other sources, such as in Rabbenu Bahya's Kad HaKemah (Hattan B'Beit HaKnesset) who writes:

אין שלימות האדם אלא עם הנשואים

Completion of Man only comes with marriage.

answered Aug 04 '17 at 19:36

mevaqesh

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+1 beautiful sources but I am looking for "half" – hazoriz Aug 04 '17 at 19:45
What do you think half a person means? An incomplete person. Which is what these sources say. – mevaqesh Aug 04 '17 at 20:04
often the word "half" in America is used by Jews to say that a husband and wife are half half (50/50) – hazoriz Aug 04 '17 at 20:06
@sabbahillel The meaning of different words in different languages referring to portions of a whole, is wholly irrelevant. The only relevant thing is clarifying the intent of the OP, and relevant texts which may answer the question. – mevaqesh Aug 04 '17 at 20:59
other discussion about "half" meaning 50% or not https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/15845/759 @hazoriz – Double AA Aug 08 '17 at 11:53

score 1 · Answer 3 · answered Aug 07 '17 at 16:52

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to put it simply whole and half refers to a persons potential , to achieve your fullest is only with the help of an isha .....

answered Aug 07 '17 at 16:52

user15422

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The question is asking for a source, not just an explanation. Can you [edit] to add a source for what you say? Thanks. – Monica Cellio Aug 11 '17 at 20:37

A man is half a person (source)

What are the sources for this?

3 Answers3