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The following question might be a duplicate of How could different pronunciations arise when we are obligated to pronounce the Shema precisely?

Why did our Rabbonim however many hundreds of years ago allow changes in orening pronunciation in the first place? I presume if someone one day orened at the Omud and started pronouncing his ghimels and gimels the same or ayins and alephss the same way, he would have been told off afterwards by the Rabbi and that would have been it. Am I missing something here?

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Joshua Pearl
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  • Have you never met American Jews who have trouble with a "Kh" sound? What about a "Ṭ" sound (pharyngealized voiceless alveolar plosive)? – Double AA Jan 11 '17 at 21:16
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    Yes, this does look very much like a duplicate of that. Nothing wrong with that, but do you have any objection to marking it as a dupe? – Isaac Moses Jan 11 '17 at 21:18
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    @IsaacMoses Also consider http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/28833/759 which may also be a dupe of both – Double AA Jan 11 '17 at 21:18
  • @IsaacMoses My objection is primarily based on the fact that this particular point was not addressed in that. – Joshua Pearl Jan 11 '17 at 21:19
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    @IsaacMoses Joshua, if the answers to a question aren't sufficient: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/help/no-one-answers – Double AA Jan 11 '17 at 21:25
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    I doubt there were changes "in the first place". No doubt it was a gradual process influenced by the local language/ accent. And they only had themselves to compare with - it was only when Jews from different places got together, over the past 100-150 years, that people suddenly heard that a Yemenite pronounced his davenning differently to a chassid. – Miriam Jan 12 '17 at 09:50

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