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The shalshelet trope note appears in 4 places in the Torah:

Breishit 19:16, Bresihit 24:12, Breishit 39:8, and Vayikra 8:23.

In all cases the note is on the 1st word of its verse and is followed by a psik. I understand that part of the trope notes function is grammatical. I'm assuming that there is a grammatical reason that requires shalshalet to be on the 1st word and must be followed by a psik. Why?

DanF
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  • Did you check instances on shalshelet in the other 16 books? Why limit just to Torah? – Double AA Nov 06 '15 at 18:27
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    see my answer on this, related question. http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/15475/why-does-moshe-have-a-shalshelet – josh waxman Nov 06 '15 at 18:28
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    http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/4222/shalsheles-trop?lq=1#comment11167_4224 http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/4222/shalsheles-trop?lq=1#comment11168_4224 In short, if it wasn't the first word it would become a Segol, and the Psik is there to indicate it's the pausal kind of Shalshelet (there is also a connective kind in Taamei Emet). – Double AA Nov 06 '15 at 18:37
  • @joshwaxman FYI I frequently refer people to that answer of yours. – Daniel Nov 06 '15 at 19:54

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