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I have noticed that Onkelos switches his translation of ivri from sefer Bereishis where he exclusively translates ivri as a variation on עבראי\עברי and throughout the rest of chumash where he uses יהודאי\יהודיתא (except for the translations regarding eved ivri for which he uses "yisroel.")

Why the difference? I ask the question with particular reference to the very contradictory vacillation between the end of sefer Bereishes and the beginning of Shemos where the use of 'ivri' in both is in the context of direct speech by an Egyptian.

Danny Schoemann
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MenachemAryeh
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Biurei Onkelos - beginning of Shemos explains that Onkelos could not translate it as יהודאי prior to Shemos as the Avos preceded Yehuda and therefore translated it as עבראי in Braishis. However since the Jews are known as יהודאי, starting from Shemos that is how he translated it.

Gershon Gold
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