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A person I know brings to work left-over masholakh manot for his coworkers. Often the food items have already been opened and partially eaten. Although I am sure that the guy is sincere in bringing the food as masholakh manot, but at the same time I know that an underlying reason is because he does not want to waste food. Assuming his intent was to fulfill the mitzvah, does he actually do so in the above scenario? Just to clarify, the guy will NEVER bring to work masholakh manot that he purchased for his coworkers.

EDIT: Does masholakh manot have to be purchased by the giver, or can the giver pass along food items given to them, a/k/a, "regifting".

JJLL
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    Is he bringing this on Purim or the next day? – Double AA Mar 06 '15 at 04:34
  • @DoubleAA. Thank you for responding. He typically brings it in on Purim or the first day after the holiday that he is in the office. I can clarify tomorrow as I was not at work today. AA, are you suggesting that if it was delievered after Purim, the food is just "left overs" and can't fufill the mitzvah? – JJLL Mar 06 '15 at 05:07
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    If he gives it the next day, then he definitely has not fulfilled his obligation of Masholakh Manot through that, as the obligation only exists on Purim day itself. – Salmononius2 Mar 06 '15 at 05:57
  • Note that since it is brought for the office as a whole and not given to individuals (based on the way you phrased the question) then it would also not be mishloach manos. Similarly if the coworkers are not Jewish. – sabbahillel Mar 06 '15 at 13:33
  • @sabbahillel Why must it be given to individuals? Can you not give Mishloach Manot to the family next door? You have to choose which member of the family owns it? – Double AA Mar 08 '15 at 17:04
  • @DoubleAA - This is a vague area. SA among others state that men must give only to men and women only to women. Inferring from this, you can't give to a couple even if they are the same family. How they distribute it afterwards, is a different story. – DanF Mar 08 '15 at 17:17
  • @DanF It may be vague to you but that doesn't mean it hasn't been clarified before. – Double AA Mar 08 '15 at 17:19
  • @DoubleAA - From what I have read in a local halacha paper (I'll have to locate it), there was an opinion that even leaving a package outside someone's door if their not home does not fulfill the mitzvah. You must give it physically to another person who accepts it from you. And, actually, it should be done by a shaliach – DanF Mar 08 '15 at 17:19
  • @DanF Are you referring to the Business Halakhacly article in the past week's Jewish Press? – JJLL Mar 08 '15 at 18:07
  • I thank all for responding. It so happens that the coworker did not bring in the "mishloach manot" anyway. I am going to edit my OP to reflect some ideas of the ideas you guys gave me. – JJLL Mar 08 '15 at 18:11

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Esther 9:22 says

מִשְׁלֹחַ מָנוֹת אִישׁ לְרֵעֵהוּ

Meaning that the mitzvah is to give at least 2 manot to another individual friend. Also, the mitzvah exists only on the day of Purim itself.

Shulchan Aruch Orach Chayim 695:4

One must send to his fellow two portions of meat, or foodstuffs, as it says (Esther 9:19) "And send portions, man to his fellow." Two portions to one man [is the obligation]. Rama: And some send the portions during the day and not at night (from the Rosh, first chapter of [Bavli] Megilla)

Your description seems to miss both of these obligations.

DanF
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    Sourcing this interpretation of the verse (especially from an halachic source) would improve your answer vastly. – msh210 Mar 08 '15 at 03:20
  • I see no evidence from your quote that two portions to be shared by two people would not fulfill the obligation as well. בכלל מאתים מנה (lit. "one hundred is included in two hundred") as they say – Double AA Mar 08 '15 at 17:03
  • @DoubleAA - I'm not following the quote you are using. It seems pretty obvious to me from my qourcethat it says "one man". – DanF Mar 08 '15 at 17:06
  • @DanF It does say one man. It also says two portions. If I give three portions then it's no good? That's quite the chumra, IMO. – Double AA Mar 08 '15 at 17:06
  • @DoubleAA - The scenario described sounds similar to the "communal basket". I.e. - it does not seem as if he has designated one specific person. He is giving it to the "general public", so this is no "one man". If he has done this separately on Purim, anyway, then this basket the next day is supplemental and nothing to do with the mitzvah. Also, I infer by saying "left-over mishloach manot" to mean that he gave already to others and others gave him. That's what "left-over" means. Technically it's not even "mishloach manot" in terms of any mitzvah. It was done, already. I've voted to close also – DanF Mar 08 '15 at 17:12
  • @DanF I'm not discussing the post-purim aspect. Why did you answer it anyway if you think it's unclear? – Double AA Mar 08 '15 at 17:19
  • @DoubleAA - Better analysis after Purim, maybe? – DanF Mar 08 '15 at 17:21
  • To clarify, the person most certainly did receive the masholakh manot from another person on Purim. He or a member of the family ate some of it. He brings into work from whatever was left over from the gifts that he and his family received. For example, a half eating bag of chips or a partially eaten candy bar (no, not eaten by mouth thank goodness!) – JJLL Mar 10 '15 at 10:11