Is it permissible to consume something hot from milk dishes if one is still fleishig from a meat meal?
Asked
Active
Viewed 373 times
3
-
3It would greatly improve the question if you would [edit] in the motivation and why you think it might be. – Scimonster Dec 08 '14 at 14:59
-
1opposite http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/34562/759 – Double AA Dec 08 '14 at 15:23
-
1You mean something parve that's on milk dishes, I assume? – Monica Cellio Dec 08 '14 at 17:28
-
@MonicaCellio the checkmark (below) would seem to imply as much. (The other way to read this question would be with "dishes" meaning "quiche and the like", but I didn't think of that before answering.) – msh210 Dec 08 '14 at 19:50
-
It may be even permissible to eat the pareve food which was cooked in a pot which was not used 24 hours with a milky food together with meat http://www.kosharot.co.il/ask_print.asp?id=13244 For ashkenazim it is not allowed to plan itbut for sfaradim it is allowed to plan it. – David Michael Gang Dec 08 '14 at 20:09
1 Answers
7
One who ate meat may eat pareve food [=neither meat nor dairy] that was cooked in a clean milchig [=dairy] pot after finishing the meat.
― the Star-K, citing Rabbi Aharon Kotler
msh210
- 73,729
- 12
- 120
- 359