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In this question , the accepted answer explained that we have a shaliach tzibur in minyanim today, even if everyone knows how to pray, for two reasons:

  1. Minhag

  2. We don't want to embarrass someone by asking if anyone needs a shaliach tzibur, so we always have one, and if someone doesn't know how to pray, he can fulfill his mitzvah of tefilah through the shaliach tzibur.


Can someone fulfill the mitzvah of tefilah by listening to the shaliach tzibur and answering "amen", even if he knows how to pray?

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Jake
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    dupe? http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/48698/759 You just asked this. Also, the accepted answer there gives four reasons not two, none of which is "minhag". – Double AA Nov 25 '14 at 15:18
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    @DoubleAA, this question is distinguished from the former by the addition of "even if I know how to pray," which is an important distinction. – Isaac Moses Nov 25 '14 at 15:31
  • @IsaacMoses So what? It's a proper subset. Any valid answer to the other question would necessarily deal with that issue (ie who can use the Shatz). – Double AA Nov 25 '14 at 15:32
  • @DoubleAA I suppose you're right about that. ("Any valid answer ...") That's not true of all subsets, though. – Isaac Moses Nov 25 '14 at 15:33
  • @DoubleAA There is no limitation on making kiddush for others, reading megillat ester for others, blowing shofar for others: even if they are capable of doing so themselves. My question is, do we treat the sha"tz in the same way, or is it limited to those who can't pray, and why / why not? – Jake Nov 26 '14 at 09:18
  • @Jake Why are you telling me this? You've posted the "what" question twice and keep posting the "why" question in comments. – Double AA Nov 26 '14 at 14:18

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