1

Suppose I'm making some dessert, like cheesecake or ice-cream sundaes, by melting chocolate and pouring it over the dairy dessert. I realize after doing this that the pot I used was fleishig and used within the last 24 hours. Can I still eat my dessert, or did it become a meat-milk mixture because of the pot?

Monica Cellio
  • 56,645
  • 10
  • 113
  • 348
  • It's kind of complicated. Based on the number of Basar Bichalav questions you've been asking, why don't you take a look at the Shulchan Aruch with the Shach. Just that isn't too time consuming. The Badai Hashulchsn is a great Sefer as a standalone with the Shulchan Aruch. If English is your thing, I recommend Rabbi Forst's The Kosher Kitchen. Some of these questions are too involved to properly address on this site. – Ish Ploni ViKohen Jul 18 '14 at 01:21
  • Related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/34562/472 – Monica Cellio Aug 26 '14 at 22:31

1 Answers1

3

If the chocolate was pareve, then based on YD 95:2, it would seem to be permitted to consume, even if some say it should not have been poured to begin with. If the chocolate was dairy then the pot, chocolate, and cheesecake are not kosher.

Double AA
  • 98,894
  • 6
  • 250
  • 713