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I've noticed that among Conservative Jews, it seems to be a common practice that one person recites the harachamans after Birkat Hamazon and others are silent and only respond "amen". Now, after one hears someone else say a "harachaman" in Birkat Hamazon it is proper to respond "amen" (see Mishnah Berurah 189:5), but I had assumed that one is supposed to recite the harachamans himself as well if he is bentching. Are these Conservative Jews acting improperly? Would the concept of shomea k'oneh apply here even though there is no real obligation to say the harachamans?

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  • related: [tag:zimmun] – Double AA Nov 26 '13 at 21:03
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    I once ate with Teimanim whose practice was for one person to say the whole Birkat Hamazon aloud, and for everyone else to just listen and answer "Amen," FWIW. – Isaac Moses Nov 26 '13 at 21:50
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    what @IsaacMoses has said. in my beith ha kannasath only one person says beerkath ha mozon and everyone else says omein to the barochoth and the hora7amon – MoriDowidhYa3aqov Nov 27 '13 at 00:12
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    @IsaacMoses I've eaten with Ashkenazim who do that too. – Double AA Nov 27 '13 at 05:57
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    possibly related http://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/11731/759 – Double AA Nov 27 '13 at 05:58
  • Why would shomea k'oneh not apply in this case? Is it really dependant on obligation, or does it just only make a difference if there is an obligation? Wouldn't the דרבנן obligation be enough for it to matter? – LiquidMetal Jul 21 '14 at 22:49

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