I've seen the word Hashem hyphenated ("Hash-m"). Is there any valid reason for this practice?
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1Related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/83/when-blogging-emailing-etc-do-i-use-god-or-g-d?rq=1 – Shmuel May 29 '13 at 20:41
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1What do you mean validity? Are you asking if the practice is permitted? Do you want to know if it accomplishes something? What? If it avoids something? What? – Double AA May 29 '13 at 20:54
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The names of Hashem which may not be erased are listed in Shulchan Oruch Yoreh Daioh 276 (9).
Hashem is not one of them and so the hyphenated ("Hash-m") seems unnecessary.
Avrohom Yitzchok
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1The name "Hashem" was not around when the Shulchan Aruch was written so this is not a proof. – Double AA May 29 '13 at 22:09
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@DoubleAA maybe it is. Maybe the SA's list is all-inclusive, so "God", "Hashem", and the like can be erased. That's what the wording of the SA sounds like to me. – msh210 May 30 '13 at 02:48
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@msh210 maybe. but you have to show that he meant it to be conclusive. You can't just argue from silence, as this post does. – Double AA May 30 '13 at 03:19
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So why does "is" and "be" get written? Why not I- or B-? Or is it OK to use his name in any other language besides Hebrew? – Decrypted Feb 21 '16 at 04:44
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Hashem is what we use in place of one of the Aibishter's holy names. It simply means The Name. Perhaps people generalize from the examples of G-d and L-rd, and replace the e with a hyphen.
DovidM
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1Welcome to Mi Yodeya, Jay Marme, and thanks for your suggestion. I hope you look around at our other questions, read about the site, and stick around. – msh210 Jun 27 '13 at 07:10