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If one were to dream while sleeping of him or herself doing any sort of sin, is it a sin? (sources)

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Gershon Gold
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  • There's only one type of sin that I can think of that might possibly be considered a sin if done in a dream, because it is the only one with real-world consequences. Unless someone actually acts in some way while sleeping, in which case then you have a different question altogether, thinking about sinning is not a sin. – Seth J Jan 07 '13 at 17:06
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    @SethJ Even any action done while sleeping is seemingly an Oneis. – Double AA Jan 07 '13 at 17:11
  • are you asking about the notion of machshava/ma'aseh for aveiros or about whether dreaming is considered machshava? – rosends Jan 07 '13 at 17:11
  • @DoubleAA, like I said, separate question. – Seth J Jan 07 '13 at 17:12
  • There is at least one sin that does not require an act -- coveting one's neighbor's wife. – Bruce James Jan 07 '13 at 17:21
  • @DoubleAA One is liable for damages done when asleep. "Man is always fully responsible (mu'ad), whether he cause damage intentionally or unintentionally, whether awake or asleep" (Mishnah Bava Kamma ii. 6) – Avrohom Yitzchok Jan 07 '13 at 17:46
  • @AvrohomYitzchok Yes, but that doesn't make it a sin, or not an Oneis. (Although, see Ramban vs Tosfot about if it's really really really unintentional if that rule still applies.) – Double AA Jan 07 '13 at 17:47
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    @DoubleAA Are you liable for damages when an oneis? – Avrohom Yitzchok Jan 07 '13 at 17:48
  • @AvrohomYitzchok I beleive, yes, generally, although there is the machloket I mentioned before about "Oneis Gamur" meaning really really oneis. See for example Ramban to BM 82b. – Double AA Jan 07 '13 at 20:03
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    @AvrohomYitzchok See Tos. Bava Kama 4a (s.v. Keivan) that someone is only liable if they recklessly went to sleep near fragile items. If someone put the items there after the person went to sleep, the sleeper is not liable. – Fred Jan 07 '13 at 21:30
  • There's a famous story about a rebbe consoling a chosid who dreamed about doing a sin by telling him that because he dreamed it, it was, by definition, not real - or something like that. I consider this an ingenious response by the rebbe in light of the Jewish belief that the interpretation of the dream, not the dream itself, is what bears on your future. – SAH Sep 13 '18 at 08:24
  • Also to that point: https://asimplejew.blogspot.com/2008/12/question-answer-with-rabbi-betsalel.html – SAH Sep 13 '18 at 08:25
  • Sorta the opposite: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/86442/ – DonielF Apr 02 '19 at 02:12

1 Answers1

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Certainly not.

There is a Gemara (Berachos 57a) which mentions interpretations of various dreams, and many of them include doing a sin. For example:

הבא על נערה מאורסה יצפה לתורה שנאמר (דברים לג, ד) תורה צוה לנו משה מורשה קהלת יעקב אל תקרי מורשה אלא מאורשה

If one dreams he has intercourse with a betrothed maiden, he may expect to obtain knowledge of Torah, since it says, Moses commanded us a law [Torah], an inheritance of the congregation of Jacob. Read not morashah [inheritance], but me'orasah [betrothed].

There are many similar scenarios listed by the Gemara, and surely if it one has committed a sin by having this dream the Gemara would have noted so and not simply said it is a good sign.

Furthermore, while in a dream state one is not conscious of their "actions," which aren't really actions at all. It seems highly unreasonable to me that anyone would call such an "act" a sin per se.

At the same time, dreams reflect a person's subconscious. Therefore, if someone is having dreams about sins, they may want to do some introspection and try to figure out if there is anything unhealthy laying beneath their surface that needs to be fixed.

Dov F
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