19

This year, 5778, the last day of Pesach in Israel is on Friday. Is there any possible way that one could contrive to eat chometz on the shabbos immediately following Pesach?

Gershon Gold
  • 139,471
  • 12
  • 231
  • 553
Shaul Behr
  • 4,358
  • 27
  • 43

5 Answers5

11

As long as it's Pesach (i.e. until Friday at dark), a Jew cannot own any kind of chametz. Once Pesach ends, Shabbos immediately begins. A Jew cannot use money to (re)purchase chametz, and can't cook/bake any new chametz.

For this reason, even in Israel, observant Jews will use matza for their shabbos "challah" on the shabbos immeditaely after Pesach (known as the 8th day of Pesach in the Diaspora).

For Ashkenazi Israeli Jews, there is one way to make a clear distinction between the food on the shabbos after Pesach, and Pesach itself.

The custom of refraining from kitnyios on Pesach only applies to eating it. Ashkenazi Jews may own, do commerce with, and benefit from kitnyios throughout Pesach.

So, buy some Pesach-certified kitnyios food on Chol HaMoed. Once shabbos starts, break out the rice, corn, beans, have a festive kitnyios meal!

For shabbos lunch, I highly recommend a salami sandwich, on matza, with MUSTARD (another kitnyios item).

Since this question only applies in Israel, I must disagree with msh210's suggestion. Here in Israel, there is a high probability that the fresh chametz product came into existence with at least some forbidden assistance from a Jew. Even if it came from an Arab-owned bakery that is certified kosher - that kosher supervision doesn't apply on Pesach! So, you can't eat it because it wasn't under kosher supervision at the time it was baked, so you have no way of knowing what exactly is in the chametz product.

  • DoubleAA's suggestion (in a comment on the question) of mixing wheat and water would seem to do. Mine in my answer would seem to do if the gentile gives you stuff made before Pesach, like packaged cookies. – msh210 Feb 14 '12 at 20:32
  • 2
    @msh210 that's what you're chalishing for after a week of sweets? packaged cookies? :o) –  Feb 14 '12 at 20:36
  • The same would go, I suppose, for matza 'ashira, for able-bodied, adult Ashkenazim. – Isaac Moses Feb 14 '12 at 20:36
  • @IsaacMoses, and matza sh'ruya, for those who don't eat it. – msh210 Feb 14 '12 at 20:37
  • @IsaacMoses FWIW, one year when shabbos came right before Pesach started, the rabbi where I was living at the time told us NOT to eat matzah ashira that shabbos. He said that since, according to some opinions, it could be used for the mitzvah of achilas matzah even at the seder, it's still "matzah" enough to avoid it on erev Pesach. (I'm not disagreeing with you in the after-Pesach case, just pointing out that matzah ashira isn't 100% "not matzah" even according to Ashkenazi poskim). –  Feb 14 '12 at 20:43
  • 1
    +1 for explaining nicely what the common practice is in Israel, though I won't give answer credit, since technically the question I was asking was about how one could eat chometz on that shabbos, not on what alternatives you have. – Shaul Behr Feb 15 '12 at 08:16
  • Although it is valuable information and very interesting, I agree that this does not answer the question at all. – Seth J Mar 19 '12 at 15:07
  • @user1095 . You advise "buy some Pesach-certified kitnyios food on Chol HaMoed". How is this permitted on Chol HaMoed bearing in mind that I am preparing for Shabbos and not Yom Tov? – Avrohom Yitzchok May 01 '16 at 09:36
  • @AvrohomoYitzchok Really? Even if you want to be machmir and say you need to rely on ho'il to prepare on chol hamoed for shabbos which falls after yom tov, maybe some sepharadi guests will turn up? Maybe someone will become a choleh on yom tov and need to eat kitniyos? – Joel K Mar 29 '18 at 07:20
  • To add a source for "Ashkenazi Jews may own, do commerce with, and benefit from kitnyios throughout Pesach."

    https://oukosher.org/passover/articles/what-is-kitniyot/

    states

    "one may own and derive benefit from kitniyot".

     – Ariel Allon Apr 12 '22 at 16:24
7

Per the Yalkut Yosef 448:5:

It is permitted to eat Chometz on a Shabbos which is immediately after Sheviyi Shel Pesach - there is no Muktza involved, and if it was sold to the non Jew according to Halacha you may eat it on the day of Shabbos immediately after Sheviyi Shel Pesach. However you have to be extra careful not to take the chometz on Sheviyi Shel Pesach since then you will be prohibited to eat it since you have done Baal Yiro'eh U'Baal Yimotzei. (Yechave Daas 2 Siman 64, Yabia Omer Orach Chaim 9 Siman 46)

מותר לאכול חמץ בשבת שלאחר שביעי של פסח, ואין בזה איסור משום מוקצה, וכן חמץ שנמכר לגוי כהלכה, מותר לאוכלו ביום שבת שלאחר שביעי של פסח, ולא אמרינן מיגו דאיתקצאי בבין השמשות במוקצה מחמת יום שעבר. ובלבד שלא יטול מהחמץ בעצם יום השביעי של פסח, שאם כן הרי הוא עובר עליו בבל יראה ובבל ימצא. וגם הוא חמץ של ישראל שעבר עליו הפסח שאסור בהנאה.‏

Gershon Gold
  • 139,471
  • 12
  • 231
  • 553
  • 1
    But then how do you buy back the chometz on shabbos? – Shaul Behr Mar 21 '12 at 10:04
  • 3
    R. Ovadya writes: ובהיות שבשטר מכירת החמץ לגוי נכתב במפורש, שהגוי מרשה למוכרי החמץ לקחת אחר הפסח מהחמץ שנמכר מאליו, וישלמו לו אחר כך מחיר החמץ, אין לחוש בזה גם משום גזל הגוי שהוא אסור, כמבואר בחשן משפט (סימן שמח סעיף ב, וסימן שנט סעיף א). ולכן מותר ליטול ולאכול מן החמץ הנמכר לגוי בשבת שאחר שביעי של פסח, ואין לחוש בזה כלל – Curiouser Mar 21 '12 at 20:30
  • The question is whether the mechiras chametz that is performed included the additional language R. Ovadya requires. – Curiouser Mar 21 '12 at 20:51
  • 2
    This year my Rav, Rabbi Yaacov Haber, specifically dealt with this question in a shiur. He mentioned that according to the contract that he signs with the non-Jew, there is a specific clause written in that if, after the completion of Pesach, the Jew wishes to partake of his (the non-Jew's) chometz, he gives permission to do so, and the value will be deducted from the amount owing upon collection. He also mentioned this teshuva of Rav Ovadia ZT"L – Shaul Behr Apr 11 '15 at 18:59
  • @Curiouser Perhaps your comment should be edited into the answer? – DanF Mar 29 '18 at 14:15
6

Eat bread at a non Jew's house.

Shaul Behr
  • 4,358
  • 27
  • 43
Gershon Gold
  • 139,471
  • 12
  • 231
  • 553
  • 4
    Please specify how to get around muktze and/or maaseh shabbos issues. See comments to @msh210's answer. – jake Feb 14 '12 at 19:21
  • I like this answer most. Short, sweet and to the point. As to @jake's question about muktze, see my comment there. IMO if the non-Jew bought a kosher challah before Pesach and froze it, then the moment Pesach departs, the challah is no longer muktze, so if he invites you to join him for a meal, you can accept, and you don't have to make a kinyan on food that your host offers you, so there's no issue there, either. – Shaul Behr Feb 15 '12 at 08:14
  • How about if the Gentile brings you a bread (his) and eats it in your home? It sounds easier! – DanF Mar 29 '18 at 14:19
  • @DanF Sounds like mimouna – Aaron Apr 06 '18 at 22:31
3

I don't see why a gentile couldn't give you some on Shabas[1]; you could even eat it if he hadn't made it for you. Of course, consult your rabbi for practical matters rather than relying on what you read here.

[1] But see the comments to this answer.

msh210
  • 73,729
  • 12
  • 120
  • 359
  • 3
    There's the issue of giving gifts on Shabbat regarding kinyanim. Also, he could have made it before Shabbat. – Double AA Feb 14 '12 at 19:01
  • 1
    @DoubleAA, so you're saying you can't own it on Shabas? Okay, but maybe you can eat it. The question said "have chometz", which can mean "eat" or "own". I'll seek clarification in a comment thereto. – msh210 Feb 14 '12 at 19:04
  • It's possible you can own it too as in my comment above. – Double AA Feb 14 '12 at 19:08
  • 3
    I don't think this would work. Chametz is muktza on Pesach and whatever is muktza bein hashmashos continues to be muktza over Shabbos. – jake Feb 14 '12 at 19:14
  • 2
    @jake Good point. The gentile could have cooked it after bein hashemashot, but then you have maaseh shabbat issues as msh210 originally expected. I wonder though if a gentile's chametz is muktza on pesach... – Double AA Feb 14 '12 at 19:16
  • 2
    @DoubleAA, It would have to be a non-Jew cooking for himself on Shabbos and having extra leftovers. Or the same with a Jew cooking for a sick person who needs food. – jake Feb 14 '12 at 19:19
  • 1
    @jake Right, msh210 alluded to the ways out of maaseh shabbat in his question. I'm just wondering if a gentile's chametz is muktza for a Jew. – Double AA Feb 14 '12 at 19:22
  • 1
    @DoubleAA, Is a gentile's TV muktza for a Jew? – jake Feb 14 '12 at 19:24
  • @jake I don't know. – Double AA Feb 14 '12 at 19:24
  • 5
    I like the sound of this. Let's paint the scenario: Shaul walks into his non-Jewish neighbor's house. "Hi Bill! Are you in the mood for kosher mac-and-cheese made in a new pot? I think you are. Go ahead and make some for yourself while I wait here. Don't underestimate how hungry you are!" – jake Feb 14 '12 at 19:30
  • 1
    @Vram, Of course. I'm sure Obama and family have mac-and-cheese night. – jake Feb 14 '12 at 20:05
  • @Vram, Good point. So we'll say it is not oleh al shulchan m'lachim to get out of bishul akum, but that it is for a snack on Shabbos rather than part of your meal. – jake Feb 14 '12 at 20:38
  • @jake - Muktzeh ends the moment the yom tov ends. The fact that we treat bein hashmashos lechumra in both directions is only because we're not expert enough to judge the exact moment when Yom Tov ends and Shabbos begins, but it would seem to me that at that very moment, whenever it is, the muktzeh-ness of the chometz disappears, and it turns out that when shabbos came in the chometz was not muktzeh. So if a non-Jew bought some kosher challos before Pesach and froze them, then invited you over on shabbos to eat with him, I can't see what would be wrong with that? – Shaul Behr Feb 15 '12 at 08:07
  • 1
    @Shaul, I'm not sure that would work. Muktzeh is basically a state of mind: I have no use for this thing at this time, so I put it out of mind (whether because it's useless, like stones; its primary use is now not available because of Shabbos melachah restrictions; etc.). Since you can't know the precise moment when Pesach ends and Shabbos begins, how can there then be any intentionality to make the chametz un-muktzeh before Shabbos really begins? – Alex Feb 15 '12 at 15:04
  • 1
    Incidentally, @jake, AFAIK "oleh al shulchan melachim" isn't defined by what a king (president, etc.) might eat in a private meal with his family, but what would be served at a formal dinner that he'd host. So on that definition, indeed mac and cheese wouldn't be OASM. – Alex Feb 15 '12 at 15:06
  • Courtesy ping to @Vram. – Alex Feb 15 '12 at 15:06
  • Related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/16416. – msh210 May 16 '12 at 00:47
1

This year my Rav, Rabbi Yaacov Haber, specifically dealt with this question in a shiur. He mentioned that according to the contract that he signs with the non-Jew, there is a specific clause written in that if, after the completion of Pesach, the Jew wishes to partake of his (the non-Jew's) chometz, he gives permission to do so, and the value will be deducted from the amount owing upon collection. Therefore it is permitted to partake of chometz that you sold to the non-Jew on the shabbos following Pesach, so long as this clause was in the contract of sale.

Muktzeh is not a consideration, since the chometz belongs to a non-Jew, and a non-Jew's property does not become muktzeh.

Shaul Behr
  • 4,358
  • 27
  • 43