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In a discussion to my answer on Mordechai - Religious Leader or Political figure? I was told that the Gemara can not be used as scriptural basis to prove a point. Being that the Gemara clarifies scripture is that true?

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Gershon Gold
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    I think that the question could use some clarification (which may point to an answer). Of course we can use the Gemara to understand the text of Tanach. But is that dispositive in the sense that this closes the issue and there is no other possible valid way to understand the pasuk? The fact that classic mefarshim such as Rashbam, Ibn Ezra and Abarbanel frequently give explanations different from the Gemara's implies that the answer is "no." – Alex Feb 13 '12 at 22:27
  • http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Scripture – Double AA Feb 13 '12 at 22:30
  • I suspect that a proper definition of "scriptural basis" would provide the answer. – jake Feb 13 '12 at 22:31
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    This question can't be answered objectively, and I'm closing it: whether g'mara can be used as "scriptural" evidence depends on who's seeking scriptural evidence and how he defines "scriptural". Feel free to emend it to another similar question and ping me in a comment here with @msh210 for reopening. – msh210 Feb 13 '12 at 22:41
  • Thanks all for proving my point that this is objective as to how you define this and therefore the answer to the question http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/14206/mordechai-was-he-or-wasnt-he remains. – Gershon Gold Feb 14 '12 at 17:57

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