Note this questions: Baal Teshuva Minhag ; Minhagim for someone with a non-Jewish father A Jewish woman having children with a non-Jew is already a lack of observance, so if just one non-observant generation already nullifies the minhag avot, the maternal grandfather would not transmit the minhag to his grandson. Bearing in mind that questions also says that if the last observing generation is traceable, the minhag avot applies. Since Sephardim did not experience haskalah, almost all current Sephardim have a minhag avot (because they can easily trace the last observant ancestor), so how can they do baal teshuva on another minhag? His last observant ancestor of the minhag avot must to be alive after the birth of the non-observant Jew in question?
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3Why do you think any is necessary? – Double AA Jan 10 '24 at 18:27
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This has become quite obsessive. – Shalom Jan 11 '24 at 14:54
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The phrasing here makes it difficult to understand the question. I assume OP is not a native speaker of English (no offense is intended here). If someone else thinks that they reasonably understand his intent, please edit accordingly. – Deuteronomy Jan 11 '24 at 15:24