2

The gemarra states that Moshe did three things of his own accord, and Hashem concurred (Shabbos 87a; Yevamos 62a; Shemos Rabbah 46:3 (slightly different list); Avos D'Rabbi Nosson 2:3 (lists four, the three from the gemarra and the extra one from Shemos Rabbah)).

Chazal also tell us that Hashem told Moshe to warn Pharaoh that the firstborn will die "bachatzos halailah", at the stroke of midnight1. Instead, Moshe said "kachatzos halailah", approximately at midnight (Brachos 4a).

The above list doesn't include this occurrence. Do any commentaries note that this is another case that was left out, or explain why? Or do any say that Hashem in fact did not concur with this change, and why?

1 This is the simple understanding of the gemarra, starting from Berachos 3b, the understanding of Tosafos (Berachos 3b), Maharsha (ad loc.), Rabbeinu Bachaye, Mizrachi (according to the Levush), Maskil L'Dovid, Tzeidah LaDerech, and Ba'er Heitev. Cf. Levush and Be'er BaSadeh, who are appalled at the suggestion that Moshe changed what Hashem said, and assert Hashem told Moshe to say kachatzos.

robev
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  • Where did God tell Moshe to say "bachatzos halailah"? – Double AA Aug 16 '22 at 18:45
  • @DoubleAA thanks for enlightening me. Added sources. – robev Aug 16 '22 at 19:38
  • It seems to me the simple answer to your question is just God didn't tell Moshe how to say it and Moshe chose to say כחצות for the reason in the gemara. Every prophet speaks in his own style. – Double AA Aug 16 '22 at 19:43
  • @DoubleAA ?? Moshe spoke face-to-face with Hashem, so he didn't need to paraphrase or interpret, he just quoted word for word what Hashem said (Sifrei Bamidbar 153:2, brought by Rashi to Numbers 30:2) – robev Aug 16 '22 at 19:48
  • If God wanted Moshe to use certain words He definitely could ensure he did. That doesn't mean all of Moshe's pronouncements were prerecorded. – Double AA Aug 16 '22 at 19:50
  • @DoubleAA Of course Hashem can do whatever, but I believe the default is all of Moshe's pronouncements were "prerecorded". I'd like a precedent or one of the meforshim to say this is an exception, rather than just assume that's the answer. But it's definitely possible that's the explanation :-) – robev Aug 16 '22 at 19:51
  • I believe the Malbim says (based on a midrash that Rashi also brings) that when Hashem said כה that indicates Moshe as a normal navi, while זה indicates Moshe's unique status. Here it's כה. cc @DoubleAA – Heshy Aug 16 '22 at 19:59
  • @Heshy that just what the Sifrei that I cited above says. Re: here being כה, it's precisely because Moshe deviated. See https://parshaponders.com/vaeira-5778/ – robev Aug 16 '22 at 20:03
  • @robev "Deviated" implies he was told to prophesy in the "ze" form and deviated by using the "ko" form. Maybe God never told him which form to use and he could pick based on circumstances. – Double AA Aug 16 '22 at 20:13
  • In regards to the footnote, it's worthwhile to mention that even what moshe did on his own accord, at least in regards to one, tosfos there in shabbos, says that hashem commanded moshe. – אילפא Aug 16 '22 at 21:26
  • There’s no proof either way if Hashem concurred. The other cases all have a proof from the pesukim or from what actually happened, that show Hashem concurred. The Makkah took place at exactly midnight so there’s no proof either way, so it isn’t mentioned – Chatzkel Aug 21 '22 at 02:18
  • Maybe there is proof that a peirush would uncover. But good point – robev Aug 21 '22 at 06:33

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I thought that there may be a distinction that the other three were actions, where this was only words. I found this also said by this website:

https://dafyomi.co.il/discuss_daf.php?gid=1&sid=20&daf=4&n=21

אילפא
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    Thanks for the link. Nice to see I'm not the only one who asked this. His answer doesn't fit what I brought from Shemos Rabbah and Avos D'Rabbi Nosson, but good enough to get +1 – robev Aug 16 '22 at 17:31