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I'm looking for sources that discuss when it became a common practice to recite the shema. The gemara in berakhot says "m'eimotai korin et shema", when do we recite the shema, but doesn't speak of its origins it's stated as a given. I assume the practice is very old, I think I've heard some say it goes back to moshe rabbeinu. Are there any sources, rabbinic or historical, that discuss the history of the practice of kriat shema?

ezra
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    I don't understand the premise of the question. Is there a biblical mitzvah to recite the Shema? Are biblical mitzvoy from Sinai? Or are you assuming only the first verse is biblical and the rest not? And you're asking about the rest? – robev Dec 11 '21 at 17:09
  • The mishna discusses when they recited Shema in the Temple so it goes back at least as far as post-Tanakh sources could possibly go. – Double AA Dec 11 '21 at 22:34
  • Rashi brings that when Yakov came to Egypt when Yosef was hugging him, he was reciting Shema. – Shlomy Dec 12 '21 at 02:43
  • It's this question different than ohr learbah asar – Dr. Shmuel Dec 12 '21 at 05:32
  • @robev I'm asking about the origins of the mitzvah when did the practice come about – ezra Dec 12 '21 at 16:05
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    I really don't understand. What's the difference between this and any other mitzvah? – robev Dec 12 '21 at 17:20
  • @robev other mitzvos generally have a traceable origin be it d'oraisa or d'rabbanan however with shema even tho the paragraphs are from the torah it speaks not of an obligation to say it, sure you could ask this question about many mitzvos or tefilos but i'm asking about kriat shema – ezra Dec 12 '21 at 20:39
  • it speaks not of an obligation to say it how does that indicate that its practice started any different than any other biblical mitzvah? – robev Dec 12 '21 at 21:39

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The Gemara in Brachos asks your question:

תַּנָּא הֵיכָא קָאֵי דְּקָתָנֵי ״מֵאֵימָתַי״?

As Rashi explains, the Gemara is asking why the Mishnah took for granted that there is an obligation to say Shema before asking when to say it. The Gemara answers:

תַּנָּא אַקְּרָא קָאֵי, דִּכְתִיב: ״בְּשָׁכְבְּךָ וּבְקוּמֶךָ״

That is the verse in Deuteronomy in the Shema itself obligates one to say it in the morning and evening.

This verse is also quoted by Rambam as the source of the commandment.

לִקְרוֹת קִרְיַת שְׁמַע פַּעֲמַיִם בְּכָל יוֹם, שֶׁנֶּאֱמָר: "וְדִבַּרְתָּ בָּם בְּשִׁבְתְּךָ בְּבֵיתֶךָ וּבְלֶכְתְּךָ בַדֶּרֶךְ וּבְשָׁכְבְּךָ וּבְקוּמֶךָ" (דברים ו, ז).
To read the Shema twice daily, as it is said, “And thou shalt speak of them… when thou liest down and when thou risest up” (Deut. 6:7).

N.T.
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  • It's actually a machloket tannaim if it's biblical and a machloket rishonim how to paskin and a further machloket acharonim if the biblical side requires certain specific verses or not. So this answer is quite the oversimplification. – Double AA Dec 14 '21 at 21:36
  • @DoubleAA The answer is correct to how the Acharonim actually pasken. Which verses are biblically mandated is not relevant to the question. – N.T. Dec 17 '21 at 10:08
  • Is the Shagas Aryeh not an acharon??? Which verses are biblically mandated is relevant to figuring out the origins of using the verses in Deuteronomy 6 which is the question. The question didn't limit itself to opinions that are "actually paskened". You just picked the one side in the argument that is trivial to answer and posted it. Ignoring all the nuance and complication earns a critique of "oversimplification" any day of the week. – Double AA Dec 17 '21 at 13:55
  • (Not to mention that in certain places many relied and still rely on shema at plag per rabbenu tam, which on the face of it only makes sense for tosfos who hold shema is derabanan, so how "we" paskin even beshaas hadchak isn't as clear as you say.) – Double AA Dec 17 '21 at 14:00