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My question is twofold:

  1. When did we start reading a new parsha (torah portion) every week?
  2. Why did we start reading a new parsha (torah portion) every week?
Isaac Moses
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Naftali
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    I think the gemara says it was a Takanas Moshe rabbeinu. – Ariel K Dec 14 '11 at 17:50
  • @ArielK Interestingly, the gemara just says the neviim at the time enacted it. But the rambam (see my answer) says that this refers to moshe himself. – Double AA Dec 14 '11 at 17:56
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    @Naftali Are you asking why/when we started reading Torah every week or why/when we read everything in order so as to finish in some set amount of time? – Double AA Dec 14 '11 at 18:09
  • @DoubleAA well both, but mainly your 1st point. – Naftali Dec 14 '11 at 18:20
  • Not a complete answer so just a comment and possible direction of thought. 1. We likely just don't know. 2. It seems the practice in Israel of finishing the Torah every 3 years, actually got people reading the same torah parsha once every 7 years which would fit with the commandment in the Torah for kings to have a public reading once every 7 years. – avi Dec 14 '11 at 19:45
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    @avi How do you get to 7? Didn't you read the same parsha every three years? – Double AA Dec 14 '11 at 19:55
  • @DoubleAA no, not every year has the same number of weeks, nor Shabbatot. I read it in an article some where where they did the math and used it to explain the multiple number of parshiot mentioned in the Talmud on this topic. – avi Dec 14 '11 at 19:59
  • Cycle one, went from Tishrei of year 1, to Nisan of year 3.5. then Nisan of year 3.5 to tishrei of year 7, with 2 "three year" cycles ending on Shmini Etzeret. – avi Dec 14 '11 at 20:14
  • From the JewishEncylopedia: The number varies, however, so that Menahem Me'iri reckoned 161 divisions, corresponding to the greatest number of Sabbaths possible in three years; the Yemen grammars and scrolls of the Pentateuch enumerate 167 (see Sidra); and the tractate Soferim (xvi. 10) gives the number as 175 (comp. Yer. Shab. i. 1). It is possible that this last division corresponds to a further development by which the whole of the Pentateuch was read twice in seven years, or once in three and a half years. – avi Dec 14 '11 at 20:14

1 Answers1

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According to the Rambam based on the Gemara in Bava Kamma 82a

רמב"ם הל' תפילה ונשיאת כפים יב:א

משה רבינו תיקן להם לישראל שיהו קורין בתורה ברבים בשבת ובשני ובחמישי בשחרית כדי שלא ישהו שלשה ימים בלא שמיעת תורה, ועזרא תיקן שיהו קורין כן במנחה בכל שבת משום יושבי קרנות, וגם הוא תיקן שיהו קורין בשני ובחמישי שלשה בני אדם ולא יקראו פחות מעשרה פסוקים.

Moshe enacted the Torah to be read on Mondays Thursdays and Shabbat, and Ezra added on Shabbat Mincha and further enacted that the readings be at least 10 verses comprised of at least three aliyahs.

The gemara there explains the reason. The verse in Exodus 15:22 says the Jews traveled 3 days without finding water. Chazal interpret water here to be referring to Torah. So, Moshe enacted the Torah to be read at most every 3 days to ensure the Jews never went 3 days without words of Torah.

Menachem
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Double AA
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    But I don't think that really answers the question. The takkanah could have just implied that you have to read the same section each time, not a different parshah each week. – Alex Dec 14 '11 at 17:58
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    Seconding @Alex. We read torah every day (the sh'ma, at minimum); why doesn't that satisfy the "don't go three days" requirement? Why this particular solution? – Monica Cellio Dec 14 '11 at 19:25
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    Actually, @MonicaCellio, that would make an excellent followup question. (There is indeed an opinion in the Gemara (Menachos 99b) that reciting Shema twice a day is enough to fulfill the minimum obligation of daily Torah study.) – Alex Dec 14 '11 at 19:32
  • @Alex see Naftali's comment above. – Double AA Dec 14 '11 at 19:55
  • @Alex, done. – Monica Cellio Dec 14 '11 at 20:28