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I have heard that the Shadal used a razor to remove his beard, justifying it for himself through the Ibn Ezra's interpretation of Vayikra 19:27 that the prohibition would only be for shaving the beard for the dead. Is this true, and if so, how would this be allowed if there are no authorities that permit this?

KapinKrunch
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    Is the Shadal not himself an authority capable of ruling? – DonielF Feb 21 '20 at 03:42
  • @DonielF https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/12646/759 I agree that the "how would this be allowed" part is an unproductive question. If he did it it's because he thought he could. – Double AA Feb 21 '20 at 13:16

2 Answers2

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Shadal himself admits to this in a letter to Shlomo Yehuda Rapaport published in Igrot Shadal Volume II p.246:

ואני גם כי אינני מאוהביו כבר קיבלתי פירושו (נגד ההלכה) בפסוק לא תקיפו פאת ראשכם שאינו אלא על מת וקִבלתיו לעצמי למעשה אע"פ שאין אני מורה כן לאחרים כי אין לי עסק בהוראה

As for me, though I am not one of [Ibn Ezra's] friends, I have already accepted his explanation (against the halacha) in the verse [Leviticus 19:27] "Ye shall not round the corners of your heads", that it is only over the dead. And I have accepted it for myself in practice even though I do not rule as such for others since I have no business in ruling.

Here is an image of the relevant portion of the letter:

Image of page of book

Alex
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    I'm not familiar with this Ibn Ezra, but is his comment only on rounding the corners of the head or also on destroying the corners of the beard – robev Feb 21 '20 at 16:15
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    Wow. +1 What does he mean 'against halacha'? Against accepted halacha, or against what he also believes is true halacha, but for whatever reasoning he feels he can utilize this Ibn Ezra? – user6591 Feb 21 '20 at 17:15
  • @user6591 see the other answer – Double AA Apr 21 '20 at 13:12
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In the course of my translating Shadal’s perush on Vayikra, I have given a good deal of thought to this difficult issue. Here are some of my conclusions:

Before criticizing Shadal, it is important to scrutinize the actual words of his letter to Rapoport. Nowhere does he say that he shaves with a razor; nowhere does he admit to violating the normative halakhah in any specific way at all; nowhere does he even claim that Ibn Ezra himself would have advocated shaving with a razor or otherwise violating the halakhah. What Shadal does say is merely that Ibn Ezra’s understanding of the peshat of Lev. 19:27—-that the prohibitions of that verse seem to be connected with mourning practices—-is at variance with the Rabbis’ authoritative interpretation, which does not limit these prohibitions to the mourning context. So far, so good; Ibn Ezra’s exegetical method was in fact to examine the theoretical peshat of the Torah’s legal texts while at the same time accepting the Rabbinic halakhah in practice. But then Shadal goes on to say that he does rely on Ibn Ezra’s understanding of the peshat to justify doing... something. The question is, what?

It is true that all depictions of Shadal show him as beardless (except for his nineteenth-century style sideburns). However, even before the invention of the electric shaver in the twentieth century, the traditional straight razor was not the only means of removing one’s beard. Alternative methods included depilatory creams or powders, which received halakhic approval from some authorities, but not from others. Many Italian Jews from the seventeenth century onward removed their beards by such means, and Shadal himself may well have been one of them. But it is possible that in light of the less than unanimous support for this practice among halakhic authorities, Shadal may have chosen to fall back on what he regarded as the peshat of Lev. 19:27 to justify his beardlessness, at least in his own mind—-after all, he was not removing his beard for mourning purposes. And so perhaps this was all that he meant to “confess” privately to his friend Rabbi Rapoport: not that he invoked the peshat to defend his shaving with a razor (an activity uniformly recognized as halakhically forbidden), but that he invoked the peshat merely to defend removing his beard by other means (an activity that was at least arguably permitted under normative halakhah). Under such a cautious reading of his words, Shadal’s only “sin” would have been to invoke the peshat to begin with, an approach that even he would not normally have followed in interpreting practical halakhah.

Such a reading, it might be argued, is not only cautious but far-fetched. However, the alternative is no less difficult—-to conclude that a traditionalist figure like Shadal rejected a clear rule of halakhah. Given the cryptic and ambiguous nature of Shadal’s statement, the record of his otherwise zealous advocacy of halakhic observance, and the fact that no one, to my knowledge, has ever yet unearthed evidence of any other such personal lapses on his part, it seems only fair to give him the benefit of the doubt (kaf zekhut) and read his statement so as to minimize any fault-finding or controversy.

Double AA
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Dan Klein
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    You don't need Ibn Ezra's pshat to remove a beard with creams or scissors. That is allowed according to the gemara. He does write he was doing something against halacha, your interpretation of that is more than far fetched, it's beyond forced. At the end of the day, anyone can continue believing whatever they want to about Shadal. But certainly the most acceptable simplistic reading of his words are that he did use an actual razor. No criticisms or accusations involved. Simply reading his words without fantastical interpretation. – user6591 Apr 21 '20 at 13:53
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    @user6591 isn't the point of this answer that using powders and scissors is not as obviously permitted as you make it sound? Some people prohibited it apparently and the claim is Shadal used Ibn Ezra as a snif lehakel to rely on the permissive opinions – Double AA Apr 21 '20 at 14:42
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    For an opinion disfavoring depilatory methods, see the view of R. Joseph Fiametta (d. 1721) recorded in a responsum of his son-in-law, R. Samson Morpurgo (1681-1740), in Shemesh Tsedakah, Yoreh De’ah 61. It should be noted that Rabbi Morpurgo himself was beardless. – Dan Klein Apr 21 '20 at 14:50
  • @Double I think anyone with some experience with Shadal would've laughed if you had suggested he sided with any argument ever presented to disallow shaving as per those opinions. To say that now in order to read his statement in a different light seems a disingenuously forced remark. Why rob someone of his opinion just because it makes us feel more comfortable pretending he said something else? For the sake of intellectual honesty let's take the good with bad, and the easy to relate to with the hard to relate to. – user6591 Apr 21 '20 at 14:51
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    I'm not alone in suggesting that Shadal's words need not be taken to mean that he used a razor. In a 2003 article in JSIJ, Shadal scholar Shmuel Vargon said, citing Prof. Moshe Ahrend, that it might be assumed, “on the basis of information about his life style and his battle against the Reformers, that he made himself clean-shaven [hitgale’aḥ] in a manner allowed by halakhah, and that he distinguished between hashḥatah and gilu’aḥ.” The problem is, the contrary view has been invoked to declare Shadal unacceptable to an Orthodox audience, rather than "take the good with the bad" as you do. – Dan Klein Apr 21 '20 at 15:26
  • Dan, remember to ping @user6591 in your comments so he is notified – Double AA Apr 21 '20 at 17:25
  • @user6591 I'm not saying this is the best read, but you should critique if for what it is – Double AA Apr 21 '20 at 17:25
  • @Double I thought I did. This answer suggests he was stringent against standard halacha, but was lenient against that opinion in light of Ibn Ezra. It's literally almost impossible to read that into his words. He says he accepted the Ibn Ezra against the standard halacha. And According to this answer what exactly was stopping him from ruling to others? He didn't want them to do nothing wrong according to halacha? It's almost ridiculous. – user6591 Apr 21 '20 at 17:41
  • @Dan Thank you for the responses. Yes I'm aware there were always fringe opinions concerning this. IIRC there were even rishonim who believed so as well. My point was this seems like a desperate read. If somebody's opinion of Shadal hinges on this and they refuse to accept he shaved with a razor, than let them believe what they want. – user6591 Apr 21 '20 at 17:44
  • @user6591 Shadal was not a rabbi, though he taught Bible and Jewish history to rabbinical students, and thus did not consider himself qualified to issue psak. The question is not so much whether he measures up to anyone's frum expectations (yes, let them believe what they want), but whether his shaving habits can be squared with his own standards of halakhic observance, i.e. was he being true to himself. Call us desperate, but Vargon, Ahrend, & I would like to find a way to think so. Again, Shadal's actual statement is so vague that there's no "obvious" way to read it. Agree to disagree? – Dan Klein Apr 21 '20 at 18:09
  • @Dan I don't think his comment was vague. I think he found an opinion of a rishon (one he admittedly didn't usually think too highly of) and relied on it. There are instances of even the most frumy Rabbis doing things like that. I don't understand why it's so blindingly hard to believe that's what he actually said. If people want to diminish his prestige for finding an opinion to rely upon, trust me, they wouldn't treat him with any more respect reading his words the way you suggest. – user6591 Apr 21 '20 at 18:31
  • @Dan One time I heard a Shiur from Rabbi Belsky discussing a Taz that was hard to comprehend. After the shiur I made a suggestion to him that I thought made the Taz more understandable. He said 'The words of the Taz are Torah whether or not we understand or agree with them. Coming up with a forced reading to convince ourselves we understand his words doesn't help anyone.' Apparently he didn't like my pshat:) But it was an important lesson learnt. And yes we can agree to disagree, and thank you for your contribution to this site. – user6591 Apr 21 '20 at 18:34
  • @user6591 Interestingly, R. Herschel Schachter once said that R. Soloveitchik never looked in the Taz and he boycotted the Taz and said that we never follow the Taz bichlal (because many times the Taz is just absolutely wrong). – Alex May 08 '20 at 01:14
  • @Alex Interesting. Especially considering that according to Berel Wein, the popularity and subsequent acceptance of the Shulchan Aruch was due almost entirely to the popularity of the Taz and the fact that he wrote his glosses on it. – user6591 May 08 '20 at 01:22
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    @user6591 https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/59495555#59495555 – Double AA Nov 01 '21 at 14:04