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If a Jewish man without children lives in a place where there are no other Jews and does not have the resources to leave that place and move, then is he permitted to fulfill the Torah commandment to be “fruitful and multiply” with a Gentile? If we hold that the prohibition of having intercourse with a non-Jew is Rabbinic in nature (and I know this is debated), then is there a rationale for why the Torah commandment would not override.

Akiva___
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    If someone wants to provide a helpful comment to improve the question that would be great. Otherwise just downvoting it because you feel like it is, IMO, very unproductive and akin to sinat chinam. I’d appreciate feedback. My motivation in asking is theoretical for my own learning. – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 16:29
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    Do non Jewish children even count for him? – Double AA Aug 28 '19 at 16:33
  • That’s relevant I suppose. The sages debated about whether non-Jewish children count for a convert if they were born prior to his conversion. – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 16:34
  • @DoubleAA I have revised my question. Can you please consider re-opening? – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 16:37
  • Torah commands don't usually override Rabbinic restrictions. We don't wear tefillin on second day Yom Tov. We don't blow shofar on Rosh Hashanah on Shabbat. – Double AA Aug 28 '19 at 16:42
  • In your view is there any relevance to the fact that the examples you provide are mitzvahs that we can do at other times... while not being fruitful and multiplying is the foregoing of a mitzvah entirely in your lifetime? – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 17:21
  • I don't understand what you mean by that. I know people who managed to fulfill shofar, pru urvu and tefillin without once sleeping with a gentile. – Double AA Aug 28 '19 at 17:24
  • Almost the same question https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/97280/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/29807/759 what is it with people and nightmare desert island scenarios? – Double AA Aug 28 '19 at 17:25
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    It’s a hypothetical that I asked to help better my understanding of when rabbinic prohibitions can override Torah commandments and just from my curiosity as i am not very learned in this area — so it’s my curiosity regarding differences when transgression of Torah law comes about only passively – such as not blowing the shofar when Rosh HaShana falls out on Shabbat, versus overriding Torah law even if it leads to active transgression. – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 17:53
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    I suppose this question would be relevant for a poor Jew living and descended from one of the Jews who remained in Afghanistan where there is no one there to help him out.. and everyone else died or left for israel – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 17:54

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