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While trying to answer "1-5th-of-the-jews-will-make-it-past-the-messiah" I remembered the verse we say every morning but realized I didn't know its source.

I googled but except for Kedushas Levi that says it's a Posuk couldn't find anything.

Where's this Posuk or who coined that expression in our Siddurim?

Al Berko
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    I have found references to it in many commentaries, all citing it as if it is a pasuk, but I still haven't found a pasuk! – rosends Jul 16 '19 at 22:37
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    I don't recall saying this verse. Where did you find it? – Double AA Jul 16 '19 at 22:48
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    “Passuk” doesn’t necessarily mean a verse of Tanach. Kedushas Levi could easily be translated as the stitch of Keser, not the verse in Tanach. (Btw you might want to edit in that “we” who say it every morning is Sefardim, as Ashkenazim don’t say this.) – DonielF Jul 16 '19 at 23:45
  • The Nachal Kedumim writes "ובזה אפשר לרמוז בפסוק הן גאלתי אתכם אחרית כראשית להיות לכם לאלהים" but the Sefer Ma'ayanei Hayeshua writes " ולכן אמר הנביא (מיכה ז, טו) כימי צאתך מארץ מצרים אראנו נפלאות, ואמר הן גאלתי אתכם אחרית כראשית" -- the parallel "v'amar" seems to point to a verse. – rosends Jul 17 '19 at 00:43
  • Cf. Micha 7:15 and Y'sha'ya 11:11. – Fred Jul 17 '19 at 01:14

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טובים השנים יותר מן האחד. Thank you to Fred for tracking down a source for my complete guess at an answer.

R’ Chanoch Henoch Shafran of Bucharest, in his footnotes to his father’s responsa, Shu”t HaRavaz OC 1:27, asks a similar question on the Chida, who quotes it with the word דכתיב, which throughout Chazal invariably introduces a Passuk of Tanach, when הן גאלתי is not found in Tanach. He answers:

אולי כוונתו במלת ״דכתיב״ היינו: דכתיב ״בנוסח הקדושה״.

Perhaps his intent with the word “as it’s written” is that it’s written in the text of Kedushah

(as opposed to the text of Tanach).

Similarly, we can perhaps answer your question on the Kedushas Levi by saying that he doesn’t intend the word פסוק to mean a verse of Tanach, but rather a verse of Kedushah.

Fred
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DonielF
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  • Does this or some other source explain the usage of the word leimor (saying) that is used in the Kedusha? Using that word seems to imply that it is said somewhere else, but, maybe not. – DanF Jul 17 '19 at 02:38
  • @DanF His question seems to imply that he’s addressing לאמר as well. – DonielF Jul 17 '19 at 02:43
  • Thank you, once again we witness Rabbinical, Hmmm... קלות דעת? or, sorry, inexactness? – Al Berko Jul 17 '19 at 05:12
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    @AlBerko Nobody's perfect. But, I think we can do without the rabbinic sarcasm. You may want to ask a general question as to what the extent of emunat chachamim should be, considering that this comment as well as several of your past questions imply that your doubtfulness is greater than mine. I don't mean to "fire" at you. I'm just pointing that I think you may find this question may interest you and perhaps the forum, here. – DanF Jul 17 '19 at 14:54