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On Pesach night, following Beis Hillel we break up Hallel between חלמיש למעינו מים and לא לנו.

This is in the middle of a parsha, according to the Keter (navigate to Psalms --> From 114_2 to 118_1) and Leningrad (direct link to the page).

Why break in the middle of a parsha?

* This is one of the only two places in Tehillim where the Christian chapter divisions deviate from our Mesorah. The other is that we divide their chapter 119 into 22 parshiyot, one for each letter.

Heshy
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  • FWIW there are other divisions of the parshios. – DonielF Apr 22 '19 at 14:26
  • Is there a problem, per se, of breaking mid-Parsha? – DonielF Apr 22 '19 at 14:27
  • Note this is a Machloket Tannaim where to break – Double AA Apr 22 '19 at 14:30
  • @DoubleAA are you saying the Keter etc. are following Beis Shammai? – Heshy Apr 22 '19 at 14:31
  • I'm not saying that, but that isn't impossible. – Double AA Apr 22 '19 at 14:31
  • @DonielF I wouldn't call it a problem, but it wouldn't be my first choice. The Tosfos Yom Tov and Tiferes Yisrael, who didn't have these manuscripts, take for granted that we're working in units of mizmorim. The Rambam did have the Keter and I really wish he weighted in, but in the Peirush Hamishnayos he says nothing and in Chametz Umatza he just paskens the mishnah straight. – Heshy Apr 22 '19 at 14:41
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    I've always thought that this indicates a unity of Hallel at the Seder. In some way, splitting in the middle of a chapter is the best way of unifying the two halves. We aren't reading two separate pieces at different times. We are just interrupting in the middle temporarily. – Double AA Apr 22 '19 at 14:50
  • Just to clarify, are you asking why we split a Parsha at all, or why we split the Parsha specifically here? That is, many people address why Beis Hillel hold one should split the Hallel after B’tzeis Yisrael; would such reasons, which don’t necessarily address the problem of splitting a parsha, count as a valid answer? For instance, the most popular one I’ve seen, said by quite a number of Achronim, is to the effect of we sing the part which discusses Yetzias Mitzraim at Maggid and the part which discusses Gog u’Magog later. Would that be a valid answer? – DonielF Apr 22 '19 at 18:00
  • @DonielF I'd like something that addresses the parsha break. An answer that just says why Beis Hillel breaks Hallel here, which as you say many people address, just flips the question: if the first part "belongs" with the the first parsha of Hallel and the second part "belongs" with the rest, then why is it one parsha? – Heshy Apr 22 '19 at 18:23

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