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When we read Parshas Zachor shortly before Purim, we repeat a passage. According to the Mishneh Berurah 685, there is a dispute concerning the vowels that belong here.

One possibility would seem to be that this the only such dispute as to the vowels in the Torah.

Another would seem to be that there other comparable disputes, but we resovle them simply because no scriptural obligation is at stake, while because this reading is a scriptural obligation we resolve it stringently by reading according to both views.

If the latter -- that is, if there are other disputes -- do all Jews resolve them in the same way today? How did that happen? Where is all of this recorded?

Chaim
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  • Who's "we"? [15char] – Double AA Mar 14 '19 at 19:15
  • There are literally hundreds of places you can see small variations in Nikkud and Trop between different editions of the last century. There are even other ones in Zachor. The one you refer to is just famous because the Mishna Berura heard about it. Before him pretty much no one thought it mattered (all the more so now when we know which variant is mistaken) – Double AA Mar 14 '19 at 19:18
  • @Double AA Did Rishonim comment on this? Do modern published Chumashim note variants? Did Poskim before the Mishnha Berura think that alternative ways of voweling a reading would equally fulfill the commandment, and therefore make no distinction between Zachor (as a scriptural obligation) and another reading (as not scripturally required)? Can you point me to any sources? – Chaim Mar 14 '19 at 21:14
  • https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/73236/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/73237/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/79874/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/37107/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/61691/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/14882/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/82068/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/82097/759 https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/90102/759 – Double AA Mar 14 '19 at 21:34

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