Why does this mill leveling formula have a x4 in it?

Asked May 18 '23 at 04:10

Active May 18 '23 at 04:10

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In the leveling guide for Tormach CNC mills https://tormach.com/media/asset/t/d/td10523_mill_leveling_1019a.pdf, once you measure the twist on the machine over its entire travel, if you have an 1100M, 1100MX, or PCNC1100 machine you then multiply that number by 4 to obtain the shim thickness (page 5, step 6).

Can someone explain to me how that multiply by 4 is derived? Also, why is it different for the 770 series machines? I noticed the 1100 series machines have 9.5" or 11" of y travel and the 770 machines have 7.5" of y travel. I assume it's related to that.

asked May 18 '23 at 04:10

Maxthecat

The difference between models will be from a 'similar triangles' situation – Jonathan R Swift May 18 '23 at 12:35
That makes sense. My intuition is these numbers are rounded from something that is close-- I can't see how you could multiply by the same number for machines that have different travels (ie: 1100M/MX vs PCNC1100) – Maxthecat May 18 '23 at 13:51
Why don't you ask thew Technical department at Tormach? – Solar Mike May 19 '23 at 12:02
They don't need the same travel though, only the same relationship between measured positions and mounting points. – Jonathan R Swift May 19 '23 at 14:03

Why does this mill leveling formula have a x4 in it?

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