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In Star Wars Episode III: Revenge of the Sith, Chancellor Palpatine accuses Mace Windu and other Jedi Masters of treason for trying to arrest him. Were they actually committing treason though?

First of all, Palpatine had certainly broken the law. He assisted the Trade Federation and therefore had committed treason himself. He also took action to murder Obi-Wan Kenobi and Qui-Gon Jinn, which is surely illegal.

I don't know if Mace Windu was legally allowed to arrest Palpatine, but even if not he was trying to arrest a criminal, perhaps this could go down as a citizen's arrest.

So the question is: My lord, is that legal (to arrest Palpatine, or was it treason)?

Edlothiad
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Levi C. Olson
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  • was it treason to assist the Trade Federation the way he did in Ep 1? | 2 - Nute Gunray was the one who ordered the hit on Jinn and Kenobi on the ship, not Palpatine. Do we ever see him order Maul to kill the Jedi? Perhaps Maul was off on his own vengance plan of action? Palpatine was the legally appointed head of state and Windu comes in weilding a sword? You're listening to that Jedi propaganda ;)
  • – NKCampbell Dec 04 '19 at 00:25
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    Depending on the definition of treason, it might be neither legal nor treason - it might be some other crime. ("Coup d'etat" springs to mind as a description, but I'm not entirely sure how that would make it on a docket.) – Cadence Dec 04 '19 at 00:29
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    I don't think we know enough of the legal particulars of the Republic. It was probably illegal (usually you at least need some kind of warrant to arrest the head of state). Probably not treason depending on its definition. When the plan changed to summary execution he was definitely going to be in trouble. – OrangeDog Dec 04 '19 at 00:31
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    Palpatine had certainly broken the law. He assisted the Trade Federation and therefore had committed treason himself. ~> That's upto the courts to decide, not a Jedi. – user931 Dec 04 '19 at 07:10
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    @StopHarmingMonica We certainly need to know more: As the actions of which Palpatine was being accused did not seem to violate established law ("being a Sith Lord" not actually being illegal - "Colluding with the enemy" or "passing classified information to Separatist forces" would have been though), then under a USA-style system this falls within immunity from liability for civil damages - so threatening to arrest the president-expy would be treason unless he were impeached. Under a UK-style system, arresting the Prime Minister-expy in similar circumstances wouldn't be treason... – Chronocidal Dec 04 '19 at 11:00
  • @NKCampbell In Episode 1, no - as the Trade Federation was still part of the Republic. As senator for Naboo, you can argue that it might have been a conflict of interest - or that he was in a position to legally agree to the blockade during renegotiations of whatever treaty the Trade Federation were claiming was broken. Actions in "The Clone Wars" TV show, where Sidious is seen actively passing classified intel to the Separatists, & organising/ordering terrorist attacks on Republic planets - including Coruscant - to further his own political agenda? Definitely treason - but, any proof? – Chronocidal Dec 04 '19 at 11:07
  • Historically, treason has been a much-abused charge. Find out about what is known as constructive treason and old English common law definitions of treason. This is why it is impossible to answer an "Is this treason?" question without knowing the details of the law in the jurisdiction concerned. This question is asking about a fictional jurisdiction, whose creators might not have even thought of fleshing it out in this amount of detail. And one that slightly alludes to the Roman Republic and Empire, moreover, whose leges maiestatis were quite different to English common law. – JdeBP Dec 04 '19 at 17:02
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    I can't possibly see how this is a duplicate of https://scifi.stackexchange.com/q/164080/110291 That one is asking whether or not it was legal for Palpatine to execute Order 66, this one is asking whether or not Mace Windu was legally allowed to arrest Palpatine. I guess they are related questions but that doesn't make them the same question. Even if order 66 was legal that doesn't necessarily mean that they couldn't arrest him. Perhaps an answer could draw upon that fact and reference the other question, but an answer to that question isn't likely to directly answer this as well. – Levi C. Olson Dec 04 '19 at 20:40
  • to me it is the same answer since Order 66, as written, is invoked if the Jedi turn traitor against the Chancellor. If a question answers if Order 66 is legally invoked or not, it by defintion then answers whether the Jedi, legally speaking, were traitorous. – NKCampbell Dec 05 '19 at 16:15
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    @NKCampbell Order 66, as written is "In the event of Jedi officers acting against the interests of the Republic" - which is a much lesser offense than treason. For example, the "Interests of the Republic" could - under certain circumstances - involve executing an individual or group, while the Jedi might prefer to capture and imprison them instead. "Exposing a prominent Politician in a time of open war" could be seen as "against the interests of the Republic", even if that politician is heavily corrupt - because it would be better delayed until it won't weaken the Republic against the CIS. – Chronocidal Dec 05 '19 at 16:48
  • In reality, treason is whatever the people in charge SAY it is. – Omegacron Dec 05 '19 at 23:42