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As today's xkcd so neatly puts it, The Chronicles of Narnia gives a really unrealistic impression of how good Turkish Delight tastes:

Image of the xkcd

Have some Turkish delight. If you betray your family, there's more where that came from.

Wow. This is... not great.

The Narnia books gave me a really unrealistic impression of how good Turkish delight tastes.

While he was eating the Queen kept asking him questions. At first Edmund tried to remember that it is rude to speak with one’s mouth full, but soon he forgot about this and thought only of trying to shovel down as much Turkish Delight as he could, and the more he ate the more he wanted to eat,
The Lion, the Witch, and the Wardrobe - Chapter 4: Turkish Delight

Having tasted Turkish Delight IRL, its really not that great. So what was Lewis' fascination with it, and why did he present it as if it was the end-all-be-all of candy?

yeah22
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amflare
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    Ummm. Turkish delight in the middle of world war 2. I think it likely that Edmund hadn't had ANYTHING that tasted good in a very long while. – JRE Apr 13 '18 at 15:56
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    I always assumed they were enchanted to make him crave more. – David K Apr 13 '18 at 16:33
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    @DavidK I'm quite certain that it was. But since this question is about why Lewis chose it, and not Edmund's love of it, the in-universe answer is best left for a separate question. – Mwr247 Apr 13 '18 at 16:55
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    "Having tasted Turkish Delight IRL, its really not that great." Have you only tried one kind? Because it comes in a bajillion flavors. Imagine someone tasting mint chip ice cream, not finding it all that fabulous, and decide that ice cream in general is not all that fabulous (which is just objectively wrong ;). Plus I am with @Valorum on true Turkish Delight (lokum). – Lexible Apr 13 '18 at 19:47
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    How can this question be still open is beyond me. Even the inspiration to the question is the asker's his/her life experience. –  Apr 13 '18 at 22:49
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    @C.Koca Because subjectivity is relevant insofar as trying to understand authorial inspiration and intent, which is the purpose of the question. Regardless of OP/XKCD's opinions on Turkish Delight, the focus is on understanding the author's choices relative to the time, and as it turns out, there actually is depth to it. – Mwr247 Apr 14 '18 at 04:26
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    @Mwr247 The question explicitly asks why Lewis used Turkish Delight even though it is not really good. The fact that you gave a great answer to a slightly different question does not change that. Also, for influences, I thought this SE goes at far as to author's statements so your great answer fits certainly more in Literature SE rather than here. Regardless, this question is the epitome of how rules are arbitrary is scifi SE. –  Apr 14 '18 at 11:24
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    Turkish Delight in the book was so wonderful because it was made in the Queen's world, the world containing her capital city of Charn. It was Turkish Delight from the world of Charn, not from our world. The queen merely called it Turkish Delight because that's the name Edward supplied her with; she had no way of knowing where Turkey was or any inkling of its cuisine. – vrtjason Apr 14 '18 at 18:28
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    "Having tasted Turkish Delight IRL, its really not that great." Have you tasted Turkish Turkish delight, or only the sad imitation that can be found in western countries? – Rand al'Thor Apr 14 '18 at 20:59
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    Reaching a bit - Turkey is/was also known as a source for poppies and poppy products like Opium. So Turkish Delight coub be a veiled reference to "addictive things that are bad for you" without referencing addictive drugs directly. – Criggie Apr 15 '18 at 23:20
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    Here is a question that discusses other Turkish references: https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/135203/why-did-c-s-lewis-use-turkish-references-including-aslan Disclaimer: It is my question – atakanyenel Apr 17 '18 at 10:31
  • It's possible that it was at least partially chosen because the name itself sounds / reads good. I never tried it, or knew about it as a kid, but it just sounded mouthwatering – Typewriter Apr 17 '18 at 17:16
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    I would so totally betray for the same treat. I've loved Turkish Delight for sixty years now - that's commitment! – Danny Mc G Sep 09 '20 at 08:50

7 Answers7

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It's helpful to consider in context of the time. Rationings were in effect in WWII England, and Turkish Delights were a particular delicacy that was popular at the time and hard to come by. Also consider that food in general was less sugar packed than many of the options we have today, so many foods at the time that we might consider "disappointing" would have had a much different impression of the people of their time. From an article a couple years ago regarding this exact question:

The question of Turkish Delight often becomes still more perplexing when a young Narnia fan actually eats the stuff, and finds that it does not live up to Edmund’s rapturous praises. As with so many things in pop culture, the answer lies in the context, and since we’re living in a beautiful future, an academic article has stepped in to tell us all about the importance of Delight.

According to food critic Cara Strickland, the Turkish sweet cast an intoxicating spell over late-Victorian England. Made from a confection of rose oil and sugar, the candy is simple on paper, but proves extremely difficult to make – no matter how Western Europeans tried, they never quite replicated it. Thus, if you wanted real Delight, you had to import it from Turkey, which got expensive fast, so that it became a marker of either status or indulgence in much the way the way coffee had a century earlier.

Of course just as costs had gone down, the outbreak of World War II and its subsequent rationing meant that the candy was harder than ever to come by. Perhaps this is why it became so significant to Lewis? As he welcomed refugee children into his Oxford neighborhood, he thought back on the candies and holidays that had marked his own childhood.

It makes sense that Turkish delight would have been on Lewis’s brain as he crafted a book where Christmas features as a main theme. In Narnia, it is “always winter and never Christmas,” a product of the White Witch’s evil magic. It makes sense to draw a parallel between this dismal fantasy and the stark realities of wartime. Rationing extended to timber, which made Christmas trees harder to come by, and confectionery rationing didn’t end until February of 1953—still well before the end of sugar rationing later that year. When the White Witch asks Edmund what he’d like best to eat, it’s entirely possible that Lewis was answering for him: the candy that would be most difficult and expensive to obtain. Edmund isn’t just asking the witch for candy, he’s essentially asking her for Christmas, too.

Why Was Turkish Delight the Ultimate Temptation in C.S. Lewis’ Narnia? - Leah Schnelbach

The article I've referenced summarizes and cites from an article written by Cara Strickland. She goes far more in depth into the matter, including pointing out Lewis' fascination with Turkish culture (Aslan is apparently the Turkish word for Lion, for example). It's far too long and detailed to include though, so I recommend checking it out directly if you want to go deeper.

So it was essentially both a cultural delicacy at the time, and as the article speculates, likely something of specific connection to Lewis himself.

Mwr247
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    The extra element of temptation probably lies in the name as well. In Turkish, it is not called delight, wonder or perfection. The literal translation is "mouthful", so watching the Turkish translation did not really gave me a magical feeling. Also, "aslan" literally means lion in Turkish, meaning there might be even a deeper meaning to choice of Turkish delight. –  Apr 14 '18 at 11:42
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    Were "other flavor" Turkish Delights commonly known in England at the time, or just the rose kind? I've always found the rose ones okay, but underwhelming — but lemon, strawberry, or mint ones are a treat. – hobbs Apr 15 '18 at 02:47
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    Also remember that he was English, so you have to compare it to English food, not food in general. :-) – T.E.D. Apr 16 '18 at 14:28
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    Hey @T.E.D.! Stop waling on our fish & chips, toad-in-the-hole and spotted dick! – Accio_Answer Apr 17 '18 at 11:22
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    It also makes for a very nice picture, covered in powdery white sugar, corresponding to the ice queen. – Daniel Apr 17 '18 at 14:10
  • @hobbs And those are just the flavours hawked to western markets. Go to Turkey and you'll find pistachio, coconut, and more flavours than you can shake a stick at. – Rand al'Thor Apr 19 '18 at 13:32
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    I think you hit it with the issue of rationing. The queen offered a whole plate of sweet, high-calorie treats to a hungry, skinny kid who probably hadn't had a chance to eat as much as he wanted of anything for years. Imagine that, and then also consider all the stuff being published lately about how addictive sugar is supposed to be. It makes the incentive power of the Turkish delight more believable. – Pixel Jun 19 '18 at 21:01
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It should be remembered that until Edmund asked for Turkish delight, Jadis had very likely never heard of it at all, and so the enchantments she used to create it were running on his ideas about it.

It was already Edmund's favorite candy (or he would have asked for whatever his favorite candy was and we would be talking about that), and he could have been envisioning it as more enjoyable than his actual experience warranted.

And since the whole point of offering it to him was to hook him into her schemes, she amped up the pleasure of eating it.

EvilSnack
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    I don't know why this has been downvoted as it makes complete sense to me. As a child I took it as read that the turkish delight was enchanted in some way. Reinforced when I tried the real stuff and found it..nice, not world-shattering, not family-betraying-good, but good. The idea of a witch presenting enchanted food is not exactly new either. – Ruadhan2300 Apr 17 '18 at 11:44
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    I assume it was downvoted because it basically said that the choice of candy was a basically random one made by Edward. However, the choice was actually made by C. S. Lewis when writing the book and the original question was why did Lewis made that choice. – Vince O'Sullivan Apr 18 '18 at 06:08
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    I'd really like to know how "It was already Edmund's favorite candy" got interpreted to mean "the choice of candy was basically a random one". – EvilSnack Apr 19 '18 at 02:48
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    I think it's downvoted because the question is why Lewis picked Turkish Delight as the treat Edmund asked for, and this answer doesn't address that at all. You say it's Edmund's favorite candy, but he's a figment of Lewis's imagination. He didn't have a favorite candy until Lewis gave him one. – cjm Apr 19 '18 at 22:16
  • My answer addresses the question of why whatever Lewis chose was made into the "end-all-be-all of candy", and not why Turkish Delight was chosen for this role; which is how I interpreted the question, as it was phrased in the final line of the OP. – EvilSnack Apr 30 '18 at 04:25
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The reason Edmund forgets his manners (and everything but stuffing as much candy in his mouth as fast as humanly possible) is not the fact that Turkish Delight is the greatest confection in existence, but the White Witch's magic:

At last the Turkish Delight was all finished and Edmund was looking very hard at the empty box and wishing she would ask him whether he would like some more. Probably the Queen knew quite well what he was thinking; for she knew, though Edmund did not, that this was enchanted Turkish Delight and that anyone who had once tasted it would want more and more of it, and would even, if they were allowed, go on eating it till they killed themselves.

This is apparently something she's done before, probably with other foods, as Beaver specifically calls out her food in connection with treachery.

"He had the look of one who has been with the Witch and eaten her food. You can always tell them if you've lived long enough in Narnia; something about their eyes."

So while you can look to the other answers for the reason Lewis picked Turkish Delight over say, toffee, keep in mind that this was never supposed to be a realistic impression of how good Turkish Delight tastes.

Nolimon
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Beside the delightfullness of some brands of Turkish Delight according to some of those who have answered here, there is also the Turkishness of Turkish Delight to considered.

If Communist Cookies, or Nazi Nougat, or Stalinist Sweets, or Enemy Eclairs, or Anarchist Apple Fritters, had been a popular band of candy or sweets when Lewis was writing, he might have chosen them for Jadis to tempt Edmund with, for the sake of their sinister sounding names.

But if Lewis was limited to using a real and familiar type of sweets, I guess that the name of Turkish Delights might have had the most sinister and hostile connotations of any real type. Various Turkish realms had been feared threats to various Christian and/or European societies for six hundred years up to the Great Turkish War of 1683 to 1699 when their conquests in Europe began to be reversed.

M. A. Golding
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    Tip: “Nazi Nougat” – Adamant Apr 14 '18 at 07:13
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    Got to say, though: Enemy Eclairs are pretty good. – Lexible Apr 14 '18 at 17:37
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    Since "Aslan" is the Turkish word for "lion," it seems improbable that the reference to Turkishness was intended to be sinister. – rob Apr 14 '18 at 17:49
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    I don't think the "feared threat [of] various Turkish realms" needs to be limited to pre-1699. In World War I the Ottoman Turks were one-third of the Central Powers; and in World War II the Turks remained "neutral" (i.e. "not on our side") until February 1945. Note that the later books in the series (written in the late 1940s) feature swarthy, turbaned, scimitar-wielding Calormenes. The historical/contemporary connotation of "oriental" as "sinister" (that is, "east" as "left") should not be dismissed out of hand as improbable. – Quuxplusone Apr 14 '18 at 18:36
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    "Anarchist Apple Fritters" would be a great name for a punk band. Edgy, yet comforting and homey. – Helbent IV Apr 14 '18 at 20:08
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    I doubt that the English ever considered the Turks as the threat that mainland Europe did. – sgf Apr 15 '18 at 00:44
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    There were diplomatic efforts by Elizabethans to form alliances with the Ottomans. Obviously later the English came into conflict with them because of the British Empire (and essentially everyone being an enemy at some time). – Francis Davey Apr 15 '18 at 08:09
  • @rob: AFAIK it's originally Persian and a loan word in Turkish. – 0xC0000022L Apr 17 '18 at 08:12
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    She didn't tempt Edmund with it, he asked her for it. – mbomb007 Apr 17 '18 at 13:59
  • @sgf English sailors were often captured and enslaved by the Barbary corsairs from Turkish vassal states. Barbary pirates from Turkish dependencies in North Africa also raided in Ireland and England. The Turkish were powerful enough at sea that if they had conquered more of Europe and established naval bases close enough to England, the English Channel would be no better defense against a Turkish invasion than it was against the Spanish Armada. – M. A. Golding Apr 26 '18 at 04:48
  • @M.A.Golding Well yes, until the battle of Lepanto, which was more than 300 years before the book was written. – sgf Apr 26 '18 at 22:02
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The only reason that he could not stop eating it is because it was enchanted.

As I recall (having read the book recently, though I don't have it at hand now) there's a point where Edmund is looking longingly at the empty box, and the witch is not surprised, since the treats were enchanted.

RDFozz
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Knox Boyd
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While I support the answer of Mwr247 for important context (even if it largely lifts from another source that lacks a clear CC license), I came across an interesting answer for this question years ago at a diverse table of people from many countries.

The Turkish representative had brought a box of Turkish delight, imported from Turkey, and thus labeled in its original Turkish language ("Lokum"). This was touted as the real thing; I'd finally get to learn after years of waiting just what Edmund (Lewis) was referring to.

The Danish representative, arriving a few moments later, laughed and commented that in his language, the word means "toilet."

So even linguistically, we were set up for the experience of the dessert being a welcome treat but not nearly as amazing as Edmund described it, in comparison and context with a modern peacetime of relative abundance where a wide variety of sweets and rich foods are relatively easy to come by.

If Lewis knew this, this particular choice of treat could have been a hidden reference to something which seems quite attractive on its surface but has a much dirtier true meaning underneath. With evacuated Danish children in wartime England, real Turkish delight something that would have to be imported (according to Leah Schnelbach's article quoted by Mwr247), and the higher average number of languages Europeans are familiar with (compared to residents of other English-dominant countries), it would not necessarily be that unusual for Lewis or at least some of his readers to pick up on this connection.

His writing style puts meaning on so many different levels and layers, that I would not be entirely surprised if this was intentional. Also, he could not have conveyed that meaning with any other choice of treat, so it lends a bit more weight to the possibility that the extra layer of meaning may have been intended.

In a later reading of the particular section quoted in the question, I also interpreted "Turkish Delight" as a code for addictive drugs (e.g. opiods) that also make one forget one's manners, think only of trying to shovel down as much as one can, where the more one consumes the more one wants to consume. Lewis's goal of embedding morals and lessons important for young people to learn would likely have included strong cautions against this sort of substance, even if is something that sounds exotic and tempting, because such drugs lead to one's downfall and hurt one's family.

WBT
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  • Speculative? Look at the text quoted in the question! – WBT Apr 14 '18 at 20:01
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    Not in the same way or to the same extent or with the same consequences as described in the text. – WBT Apr 14 '18 at 21:37
  • Anyway, if you focus on just the last paragraph, you're missing the core of the answer. – WBT Apr 14 '18 at 23:35
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    You're saying that his reference to a commonly known delicacy was actually a vaguely scatalogical linguistic pun relying on his readers knowing both Turkish and Danish (languages that, AFAIK, Lewis himself didn't speak), and thus which 99.9999% of his readers were sure to misinterpret? Please, give him credit for being a better author than that. – Sneftel Apr 16 '18 at 10:09
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    I think if an author is able to bury another layer of meaning in linguistic choices about something which seems very attractive on the surface but isn't when you really look into it, that's a valuable trick and worth giving credit to someone for doing that, even if it's not clearly intentional. Readers would be far more likely to miss that connection than misinterpret. It's the different layers of meaning that's part of what makes Narnia such good writing. – WBT Apr 17 '18 at 13:26
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Possibly due to how the writing works as Turkish delight is a very specific food for a westerner to imagine.

If I say chocolate you are imagining a vague concept of twenty plus types but you have probably only had Turkish delight a few times and it makes the reader imagine the food with much more clarity.

PStag
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    Is there anything here beyond pure speculation? – Edlothiad Apr 16 '18 at 09:07
  • @Edlothiad The writing technique? I don't think it was empirically tested so no, it would be speculation. – PStag Apr 16 '18 at 09:10
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    I've downvoted this answer as it is nothing more than speculation. Especially when you read the sources in the top answer and see there was likely a stronger connection that just "something unique". – TheLethalCarrot Apr 16 '18 at 09:17
  • @TheLethalCarrot Hypothetically, how can an answer to this question not be speculation other than a direct quote from CS.Lewis answering this question? – PStag Apr 16 '18 at 09:27
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    @PStag There is a distinction between pure speculation and informed speculation. This reads more as pure speculation to me. – TheLethalCarrot Apr 16 '18 at 09:31
  • @LethalCarrot he was a successful author it is far from speculation he was aware of the technique. Whether that was the reason is no more speculation than any other answer. – PStag Apr 16 '18 at 09:48