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I don't think there will be a canonical answer for this question. I'm just wondering if this is how it works.

It's said that when you kill someone, you split your soul. I believe that means you split it in half.

So, I came up with this graph:

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The splitted part of the soul couldn't be exactly 1/7 every time because he didn't know how many he would make, perhaps he would make more in the future.

He asked Slughorn about making 7, that's why I'm using this number here.

Perhaps it's just a random percentage of the soul... I don't know.

But, as I said, considering that the soul is split in half.

When he splits it again, I don't think a soul already "horcruxed" would be a part of this division, since it is intact inside another object that could be anywhere in the world.

So, this means that the first Horcrux he made would have half his soul. Then, the second would have 1/4 of it, just as himself.

Does that means that Voldemort fought against Harry in the last book with only 0,78% of his soul in his body?

Is my math insane?

Phiter
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  • Didn't see that one XD – Phiter Jun 21 '16 at 16:49
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    Pity to close this with the nice graphs and all... Perhaps edit this into the previous question. – TGnat Jun 21 '16 at 17:00
  • Yeah I tought about that, but the edit would probably be refused since it conflicts with the autor's intent. – Phiter Jun 21 '16 at 17:04
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    At least we know there will always be some bit of a soul left in Voldemort, since that function will approach but never reach 0! – CBredlow Jun 21 '16 at 17:13
  • Yeah, it's Zeno's Dichotomy Paradox. You can't reach 0 if you split by two infinitely. – Phiter Jun 21 '16 at 17:19
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    It should be pointed out that you're starting from an assumption not necessarily based on anything stated in the books. When Slughorn is telling Riddle how to create a horcrux, he says only: "By an act of evil - the supreme act of evil. By committing murder. Killing rips the soul apart. The wizard intent upon creating a Horcrux would use the damage to his advantage: He would encase the torn portion --". No where does he indicate that the two pieces are equal in size. Indeed, the fact that he referred to the "torn portion" suggests that one may be drastically smaller than the other. – Paul L Jun 21 '16 at 17:40

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