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The Lord Of The Rings appears to be the "One Ring" not Sauron! Sauron himself can't control any ring without one ring. Sauron appears to have no power over the elven rings! If anyone who has enough power to use the One Ring he can control all the other rings and become the lord of the rings. There are many many examples that proves this. I am not sure why people think Sauron is the Lord of the Rings. It appears to me it's the ring of power itself and not Sauron that is the Lord of the Rings. So is it Sauron or the Ring itself that is Lord of the Rings?

Edlothiad
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Ikado
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    This question needs to be rewritten to make sense and then be phrased as an actual question. I'll edit it a little, but I'm tired. – JMFB Sep 05 '15 at 08:48
  • I edited it so it at least makes sense right now. The Elven rings were never subject to the one ring whether Sauron possessed it or not. The Elven rings were made on the side without Saurons help so he'd have no control over them. – JMFB Sep 05 '15 at 08:54
  • Thank you JMFB and Sauron has no control but the one ring has. It is not only about elven rings as explained at Ring-verse "One Ring to rule them all, One Ring to find them bla bla" – Ikado Sep 05 '15 at 09:02
  • @Ikado I posted an answer. If you need further explanation let me know. – JMFB Sep 05 '15 at 09:05

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Yes the One Ring or the Ring of Power controls the other rings.

Three Rings for the Elven-kings under the sky, Seven for the Dwarf-lords in their halls of stone, Nine for Mortal Men doomed to die, One for the Dark Lord on his dark throne In the Land of Mordor where the Shadows lie. One Ring to rule them all, One Ring to find them, One Ring to bring them all and in the darkness bind them In the Land of Mordor where the Shadows lie."

—J.R.R. Tolkien's epigraph to The Lord of The Rings

However your mention of the three elvish rings is incorrect.

http://lotr.wikia.com/wiki/Rings_of_Power

The greatest three Rings Celebrimbor crafted alone. So Sauron took no part in their crafting. He had no opportunity to corrupt them and turn them evil.

Wikia again:

The Three that remained to the Elves were carefully hidden from Sauron. They were not created as weapons of war or as a means to dominate others; their purpose was to preserve the beautiful Elven domains where their wielders resided, and to aid in healing and resisting evil. However, they were still linked to the One Ring, and whoever wore it could, with effort, see the thoughts of those who wore the Three.

So at most Sauron might have been able to read the thoughts of the elves (and Gandalf) wearing the three rings, but nothing more.

But he could not have turned them into wraiths, or controlled them.

JMFB
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  • Becuase they were strong enough to resist his will. Check Tolkien's Letter #246 – Ikado Sep 05 '15 at 09:13
  • "... Sauron would not have feared the Ring! It was his own and under his will. Even from afar he had an effect upon it, to make it work for its return to himself." what kind of LOTR fears! – Ikado Sep 05 '15 at 09:22
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    Downvote because Tolkien explicitly wrote that the title "The Lord of the Rings" was Sauron. – Lexible Sep 06 '15 at 01:39
  • @Lexible haven't seen that quote. But Tolkien also said Gandalf could have taken the ring & become master of it, Gandalf says the same. They even go to the extent to say that Gandalf would have tried to use it for good, but end up doing evil. Under those circumstances Gandalf would control the other rings. So whoever has has control of the one ring controls the other rings, the one ring has the power to do that not Sauron himself without it. It's all a moot point anyway as the three are not really controllable, dwarves are immune, & the men are already wraiths. – JMFB Sep 08 '15 at 19:52
  • @Ikado Was my answer lacking in some way? – JMFB Sep 08 '15 at 19:52
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    Pretty sure you have seen the quote if you read LotR: "Hush!" said Gandalf from the shadows at the back of the porch. "Evil things do not come into this valley; but all the same we should not name them. The Lord of the Ring is not Frodo, but the master of the Dark Tower of Mordor, whose power is again stretching out over the world. We are sitting in a fortress. Outside it is getting dark." The Fellowship of the Ring, chapter "Many Meetings" – Lexible Sep 09 '15 at 05:30
  • @Lexible Of course I know that quote. That just means that Frodo can't take control of it, it will control him. The ring calls out for Sauron. But clearly Gandalf could have taken the ring for himself as has been said various times & used it. He might have even used it for good but in the end succumb to it's evil. He would have tried to destroy Sauron with it. All of this is in various letters, interviews, quotes, & in the books. Clearly the master of the one ring at that moment is Sauron, but he is not master of all the rings at that point due to him not having possession of the one ring. – JMFB Sep 09 '15 at 06:05
  • And the Red Book of Westmarch's title being "The Downfall of the Lord of the Rings and the Return of the King?" Who, pray tell, was the downfallen? – Lexible Sep 09 '15 at 06:53
  • @Lexible He clearly was the master at that time, and he was the only entity to be Lord of the Rings as he was the only one to master the one ring. However, he put some of his essence in the one ring and without having possession of the one ring he wasn't master of the other rings. So the one ring had the power not Sauron himself anymore. I'd argue though that Sauron wasn't all that interested in control of the other rings by the end as the three weren't controllable, the dwarves were just gold hungry, and the wraiths followed him anyway. He just wanted to be complete. We're arguing semantics. – JMFB Sep 09 '15 at 14:12
  • Arguing semantics... perhaps you haven't noticed the title of the question? It's a question of semantics. – Lexible Sep 09 '15 at 15:11