18

Details

Bob and Alice have agreed they should get divorced, but they haven't done anything about it yet. Things aren't particularly amicable and it's likely it will all be executed according to the fine detail of the law.

They have 2 young children and they all currently live together in a 3-bedroom family home which is worth £500,000 with a mortgage of £400,000, giving £100,000 equity. Bob also has £137,500 of personal savings in cash, making a total of £237,500 assets between them.

Before starting divorce proceedings, Bob plans to unilaterally use £100,000 of his savings as a deposit on a similar-sized house in the same local area so he can move out and have an appropriate home to continue raising the kids in when they're staying with him (assume it's 50:50 custody). The purchase would be treated as a "second home" as it's bought pre-divorce and so subject to a Stamp Duty Land Tax payment of £37,500 to HMRC, which Bob would pay from his remaining savings.

He plans to concede his share of the equity in the family home to Alice so they each end up with £100,000 of assets post-divorce.

Observations

  • Bob's £137,500 cash savings gets turned into £100,000 equity in the new property as a result of also paying the £37,500 SDLT from pre-divorce assets. Arguably, Alice is incurring half of Bob's SDLT due to the reduction in Bob's assets before divorce allocations are calculated.

  • Both parties exit the divorce with a home that has £100,000 in equity, so alternatively the £37,500 SDLT could be seen as a necessary cost for Bob to be put on an equal footing with Alice in that regard.

Questions

Q. If Bob uses his savings to put a £100,000 deposit on a house before starting the divorce, will the Courts see this as a reasonable way to provide a home for his children, or will they think he's trying to make his savings harder to access to affect the separation settlement?

Q. Will the Courts consider Bob's original £137,500 cash savings or the £100,000 equity in his new home when calculating separation settlement, given that the £37,500 SDLT was paid before starting the divorce process?

trejder
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aaa
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3 Answers3

24

The law

I'm providing an answer from one jurisdiction, which should provide a sense of the sources of law and kind of analysis that might apply.

In Ontario, the net family property to be divided upon separation is any interest, present or future, vested or contingent, in real or personal property. Therefore it does not matter whether it is equity in a house, or money in a bank: £100,000 is £100,000. What does matter is that there could have been £237,500 to split up, and now there is only £200,000. That's the legal issue here. Should Bob's unilateral decision to reduce the family value by £37,500 affect the division of the value of the net family property?

In Ontario, the net value of family property, as it was on the "valuation date" (the earlier of the separation date or date of divorce), is equalized between the two spouses. The way this is worded in the Family Law Act is:

5 (1) When a divorce is granted or a marriage is declared a nullity, or when the spouses are separated and there is no reasonable prospect that they will resume cohabitation, the spouse whose net family property is the lesser of the two net family properties is entitled to one-half the difference between them.

That presumption of a 50–50 split can be overcome:

5 (6) The court may award a spouse an amount that is more or less than half the difference between the net family properties if the court is of the opinion that equalizing the net family properties would be unconscionable, having regard to:

...

(d) a spouse’s intentional or reckless depletion of his or her net family property;

...

(h) any other circumstance relating to the acquisition, disposition, preservation, maintenance or improvement of property.

So, the question will turn on whether the $37,500 that was paid is an "intentional or reckless depletion" or otherwise is a circumstance that the court considers would render a 50–50 split unconscionable.

The threshold for a finding of unconscionability of equal division is "exceptionally high." The circumstances must be "harsh and shocking to the conscience, repugnant to anyone's sense of justice, or shocking to the conscience of the court" (Serra v. Serra, 2009 ONCA 105, at paras. 47-48).

Examples

Pirhosseinlou v. Pirhosseinlou, 2012 ONSC 5249

A spouse lost a bunch of money making high-risk stock trades using credit card debt. The Court described the spouse as having made "bad investments, showed bad judgment, and caused a debt problem early in their marriage. I consider it a risky business venture that went very badly as profits declined and debt increased." The Court did not find an "intentional attempt to increase the debt load just before separation." The Court did not find that equal division would be unconscionable.

Dillon v. Dillon, 2010 ONSC 5848

A spouse built up debts "to feed [an] addiction to alcohol." The family was in a perilous economic situation at the time. The Court found that equal division would be unconscionable.

Naidoo v. Naidoo (2004), 2 R.F.L. (6th) 362 (ONSC)

A spouse built up $100,000 of gambling debt in the five years preceding the separation. The Court found that equal division in the circumstances would be unconscionable. But, mere speculative activity was not what made it unconscionable. It had to be considered in light of other factors: the amounts, the proportion of the family means that were put at risk, the parties' incomes, the resources each party brought into the marriage, and the conduct of the parties in condoning the activity.

Martin v. Martin, 2007 CanLII 3222 (ONSC)

A spouse built up significant debt throughout the marriage on "personal enjoyment" such as addictions, golf, and hockey. In this circumstance, equal division would have been unconscionable.

My own view

Spending 37500 of the net family value of 237500 in order to get a house in the neighborhood that the children (and presumably the entire family — more convenient exchanges, etc.) will benefit from post-divorce does not call out as unconscionable to me. Perhaps it was the perfect house in terms of location and value and other factors that may not have been around in a few months.

Of course, other facts could tip the scale. As you can see from the examples, all the circumstances are relevant, and to some extent, unconscionability is in the eye of the beholder.

If a Court were to find this unconscionable, it would simply order a small additional equalization payment to Alice up to half the "depleted" value.

Jen
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17

As a divorced UK resident, there are two majorly incorrect assumptions here.

  1. Bob does not have £137k in "personal savings". When you're married, there is no such thing. There is simply a £137k savings pot to be added to the £100k residual value of the house (plus the value of any pensions too).

  2. Bob cannot assume that assets will be split 50:50. In particular, if his wife has significantly lower earning potential, she may be granted a higher share of the pot so that she can afford a house with less (or no) mortgage to put a roof over their child's head. (The child does affect how money is divided.) Any verbal agreement Bob may have had with her before is not enforceable.

In my own case, the pot was split 75:25, with my son being a significant factor in that split. My ex-wife (who didn't work) not only took every penny I'd earned from our savings over our marriage, but also some of the money gifted to us by my parents. I was left with just enough for a (small) mortgage deposit, where she had enough to buy a house outright.

Graham
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Something that I don't think has been considered is that post divorce Bob can claim a £25,000 stamp duty rebate (the difference between the single property rate and additional property rate) once he no longer has a financial interest in the 1st property and claims within 3 years of the 2nd property purchase.

TheWorm
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