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If a married woman undergoes gender reassignment surgery(warning: explicit language is used) and hormonal treatments to become a male how would a halachic divorce be performed? Would one even be necessary?

rikitikitembo
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    Forget respecting pronouns, even “male” is now considered explicit? Ugh. – Oliver Jan 25 '19 at 03:06
  • Her cariotyp will be XY? – kouty Jan 25 '19 at 04:46
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    I don't see how this is a duplicate of the linked-to question. That asks about a former man giving a divorce; this asks about a former woman accepting one. – msh210 Jan 25 '19 at 06:37
  • @kouty since when do we check the karyotype? Is it Rambam or ShuA :)? – Al Berko Jan 25 '19 at 07:29
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    You say "to become a male" but who said she becomes male Halachicly? As the very definition of sexes is very questionable so all the related Halachos. We can easily assume nothing changed and she receives Get normally. – Al Berko Jan 25 '19 at 08:36
  • Also, once she can't satisfy his needs, she'd be "automatically declared as "מורדת" and divorced unwillingly without paying the Ketubah. – Al Berko Jan 25 '19 at 08:39
  • @msh210 agreed. I can't understand why this question would be viewed as the same – rikitikitembo Jan 25 '19 at 10:53
  • Here’s one theory. (I think I once referenced/commented on MY about a sefer called ‘Dor Tahafuchot’ which deals with the halachic ramifications of a sex-change. He also deals with this q at length.) – Oliver Jan 25 '19 at 15:15

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