Does a Jewish woman who was a non-practicing Jew that married a non-Jewish man and had children together, then divorced him and she became Torah observant.... need to cover her hair?
Asked
Active
Viewed 140 times
2
-
3Welcome to Mi Yodeya and thanks for this oft-relevant question! I recommend our [tour]. The answers at http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/54053 and http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/49279 may answer your question, especially when you bear in mind that marriage to a non-Jew is not considered marriage in the eyes of halacha. Note, though, that you should ask your rabbi this question if it's practical, relying on this site only for background information. – msh210 Apr 12 '17 at 10:47
-
1When I divorced I was informed that according to Jewish law, I was never married. But I have two children, so am not sure if that means I should cover my hair. – Rachel Raizel Apr 13 '17 at 16:16
-
2Possible duplicate of Does a Jewish woman married to a non-Jew need to cover her hair? – robev Mar 13 '18 at 15:11