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I came upon an answer today that caused me to pause.

The question asked, "Why do all women deserve to suffer for one woman's sin?"

The answer began by summarizing Ariza"l:

both Adam and Chava's soul were made up of all the souls of all generations, as they were the progenators of the human race, so whatever they did would imprint and affect all future generations...when Chava caused Adam to sin, she caused damage not only to her soul, but also that damage became imprinted upon all future souls.

It continued:

The Gemara says in Shabbos 55a:

אמר רב אמי אין מיתה בלא חטא Rav Ami said: "There is no death without sin

The Gemara says in Bava Basra(17a):

תנו רבנן ארבעה מתו בעטיו של נחש

The Rabbis learned: "There were four who died only on account of the "Hit of the Snake"

Rashi explains:

בעטיו של נחש - בעצתו של נחש כלומר לא היו ראוין למות אלא שנגזרה גזירת מיתה על כל תולדותיו של אדם הראשון בעצתו של נחש בעטיו תרגום של עצתו כדכתיב (דניאל ו) אתייעטו כל וגו' וכן התיב עטא וטעם (שם ב):

The hit of the Snake: from the advice of the snake, meaning that really before the sin, it was fitting to die, but it was decreed upon the progeny of Adam Harishon that they would be subject to death.


This sounds like the Christian doctrine of Original sin, perhaps most concisely summarized by a verse in the Christian book of Romans 5:12:

Therefore, just as through one person sin entered the world, and through sin, death, and thus death came to all, inasmuch as all sinned

However, Judaism seems to make clear, "The doctrine of original sin is totally unacceptable to Jews." while also indicating that there may be things in the Talmud that coincide with it.

Is the the concept of the damaged soul truly Jewish? Is it different than the Christian concept of original sin, as described in the references presented above?

I'm interested in an Orthodox Jewish perspective.

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    The source your quote to propose that Judaism doesn't accept original sin is weak at best. The Gemara I quoted in my answer that you reference in your question is very clear that there is such a concept. Thus the exception of the four that died only due to the nachash. – Shoel U'Meishiv Jul 21 '16 at 19:55
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    "meaning that really before the sin, it was fitting to die" is a mistranslation and should be "meaning that they were not fit to die" – msh210 Jul 21 '16 at 20:01
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    Just a thought: The "inasmuch as all sinned" part of your quotation from Romans -- I'm not seeing that in the Jewish sources you cited. I'm unfamiliar with the Christian ideas, but maybe that's the part that's deemed "totally unacceptable" by the Web site you link to. – msh210 Jul 21 '16 at 20:02
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  • I don't think that everyone agrees with that comment from the Ariza"l (the Ramban, for example, seems to disagree in his Viku'ach). 2) Ariza"l's idea of damage to souls does not imply that those souls are guilty or have sinned. 3) Judaism believes that physical death became part of the world as a consequence of Adam and Eve's sin, but that no one is guilty of sin unless they personally committed a sin. 4) Verses in Genesis about "sin crouch[ing] at the entrance," "the inclination of man's heart is wicked," etc. only talk about an inclination to sin, not inherent guilt or sinfulness.
  • – Fred Jul 21 '16 at 21:30
  • There is a similar dichotomy in Christianity. I happen to have come from the camp who did not believe in original sin. I was just surprised to find anything to that affect in Judaism. –  Jul 21 '16 at 21:43
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    @Sarah There is a similar dichotomy in Christianity. Maybe in some denominations. But generally speaking, Christians believe that a person is sinful from birth and needs to be saved or that a baby who dies unbaptized can't go to heaven. Judaism rejects these sort of notions: People do not need to be saved; unless they behave improperly or shirk their obligations (and remain unrepentant), they will be fine. (Incidentally, for contrast, a child who dies uncircumcised is not culpable according to Judaism unless he reaches the age of majority and chooses not to be circumcised). – Fred Jul 21 '16 at 23:09
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    @Fred One thing that cannot be emphasized enough (which I wish to further emphasize to you in a different context) is that there is no ultimate authority in Judaism who defines the opinion of Judaism. Even the Talmud was seen as fallible, especially in non-halakhic matters. For example R. Menahem Meiri, a prominent medieval authority notes in his digest of that very passage in Shabbat that it is the first (rejected) opinion in the Talmud which the correct one; not the concluding opinion which states that sometimes people are punished not on the basis of sin. – mevaqesh Jul 22 '16 at 01:27
  • @Mefaresh ^^^^^ – mevaqesh Jul 22 '16 at 01:28
  • @mevaqesh Regarding "the opinion of Judaism," I agree with your general principle (not that I'm saying I think it's relevant in this instance, per se). I use that sort of oversimplifying phrasing for convenience, especially to express generally accepted views, rather than resort to unwieldy phrasing. Brevity outweighs detail, sometimes. Regarding the gemara in Shabbos, the opinion that holds of "death without sin" need not imply the Christian doctrine (as understood by most denominations) of original sin. – Fred Jul 22 '16 at 01:36
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    @Fred I never stated that the opinion that holds of "death without sin" holds the Christian doctrine. I was rather demonstrating the inefficacy of defining "the Jewish opinion" in terms of individual texts, noting that that very proof-text is simply rejected by its successors. – mevaqesh Jul 22 '16 at 01:50
  • Following discussion here, I've edited this question to make it clear that expertise in Christianity is not required for answering it. – Isaac Moses Jul 22 '16 at 14:42