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Other than it being Massoretic, is there a reason as to why, in most cases, (See Avot Derabbi Natan 42:5 for list of exceptions) the Torah chooses to write the word for the fem. 3rd person as הוא using a vav instead of writing it as היא with a yod?

I ran a word search using sparks with the word הוא. It seems that with a possible exception of Iyov 31:11, which has a kri / ketiv, there are no cases outside the Torah having the spelling of הוא for the fem. version.

(Note, that I ran the search using only the spelling הוא on its own without any leading conjunctions, etc., as this is the only item of interest in this question.)

DanF
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  • because that's how it's spelled? – Daniel Jun 29 '16 at 17:44
  • Interestingly it's the same with fem. נער that it only appears so in the Torah! – Ir Relevant Jun 29 '16 at 17:51
  • @Daniel in the Torah and not the rest of Nac"h? Why should it be different? – DanF Jun 29 '16 at 18:02
  • @Irrelevant I hadn't thought oft hat. Thanks for pointing that out. The difference, though, is that נער is almost always classified as a kri / ktiv, at least in almost every Chumash that I have seen. הוא is not. Which makes me think that this was considered the normative spelling as Daniel suggests. If so, why is it that way only in the Torah and not the rest of Nac"h? – DanF Jun 29 '16 at 19:11

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