We find in Tanakh the grammatical construction: infinitive absolute + finite verb, where the two verbs are of the same root. For example, in Genesis 22:17, we have two occurences (text and translation from Mechon Mamre:
כִּי-בָרֵךְ אֲבָרֶכְךָ, וְהַרְבָּה אַרְבֶּה אֶת-זַרְעֲךָ כְּכוֹכְבֵי הַשָּׁמַיִם, וְכַחוֹל, אֲשֶׁר עַל-שְׂפַת הַיָּם; וְיִרַשׁ זַרְעֲךָ, אֵת שַׁעַר אֹיְבָיו
that in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the seashore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies
This construction is often used for emphasis (see another question here).
Normally, the infinitive and the finite verb are in the same binyan, for example:
qal + qal: Gen 2:16,
nifal + nifal: Gen 17:13,
piel + piel: Gen 22:17,
pual + pual: Gen 40:15,
hifil + hifil: Gen 3:16,
hofal + hofal: Josh 9:24,
hitpael + hitpael: Num 16:13.
However, there are occasions where the infinitive is in qal, even though the finite verb is not. For example:
qal + nifal: Ex 19:13,
qal + piel: 2 Sam 20:18,
qal + hifil: 1 Sam 23:22,
qal + hofal: Gen 26:11,
along with a small number of other cases (as mentioned in Gesenius 113w).
Question: Are there differences of meaning between the consistent binyan construction and the mixed binyan construction? Are there any commentators (or grammarians) who discuss a difference in meaning between the two cases?
