If people only sin because the evil inclination compells them to sin, how then did adam and eve sin before the evil inclination was in existence?
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2The evil inclination was extant as an external force. The behavior made it internal to mankind. It didn't call it into existence. – rosends Oct 18 '15 at 17:09
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@danno, so during that interaction with the snake, Adam and Eve got a taste of free will? – Ani Yodea Oct 18 '15 at 17:11
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@AniYodea Yes. Since this was during the six days of creation, this allowed Adam and Chava to establish how free will would work according to the "laws of nature". Had they refrained (of their free will) from eating the fruit, that would have established a different type choice between "good" and "evil". That is why there is a medrash that they would have been allowed to eat from the fruit after shabbos. – sabbahillel Oct 18 '15 at 17:49
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@sabbahillel, which medrash? – Ani Yodea Oct 18 '15 at 19:25
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Related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/41106 – msh210 Oct 18 '15 at 19:26
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For example Rabbi Brasil in http://blog.shabbat.com/parshas-ki-savoh-al-hamichya-and-the-middah-of-patience-by-rav-shmuel-brazil/ says Their failing was that they did not possess the patience to wait until Shabbos to eat from the Aitz Hadaas which then would have been permitted. This is hinted in the passuk ומעץ הדעת טוב (Bereishis 2,17) is gematriah שבת – sabbahillel Oct 18 '15 at 20:29
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Related answer: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/130262/7303 – Yaacov Deane Aug 01 '22 at 10:51