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Possible Duplicate:
Tevilat Keilim on a gift

If I buy Ploni a new coffee mug, does he need to tovel it? Did I need to tovel it?

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yoel
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  • Tagging help appreciated. – yoel Dec 11 '12 at 16:10
  • Was the dish manufactured by a Jew? – Gershon Gold Dec 11 '12 at 16:16
  • If it was ever owned by a non-Jew (including during manufacture), it needs to be Toveled. Any Jew can do it between the last gentile owner in the supply chain and the Jewish owner at the end. – Seth J Dec 11 '12 at 16:20
  • @GershonGold presumably not - am I mistakenly thinking that the basis for tevilas keilim is non-Jewish ownership? – yoel Dec 11 '12 at 16:21
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    Duplicate of http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/14213 unless I'm missing something; see also http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/15523. Closing as duplicate. – msh210 Dec 11 '12 at 16:27
  • No, definitely a duplicate - that aside, it's worth mentioning that a coffee mug usually doesn't need tevilah. – yoel Dec 11 '12 at 18:37
  • @yoel, if I'm not mistaken (and I may be), most coffee mugs are made with a glaze. See the bullet point about glazes in that document you linked. – Seth J Dec 11 '12 at 19:59

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