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In another answer, someone said that Rashi thinks Ashbaal is changed to Ishboshet (sorry for spelling) as derogatory to the baal.

So Ishboshet's real name is Ashbaal but then some scribes changed that.

If that's true, then how is the bible inerrant? If people change the actual content of the bible with false information to fit their theological agenda. What am I missing here?

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user4951
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  • possible duplicate of Does Torah inerrancy extend to the prophets and the writings? – Seth J Mar 07 '12 at 14:36
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    @SethJ, I think this is actually a special case thereof. The title here should probably be more specific. – Isaac Moses Mar 07 '12 at 14:42
  • @IsaacMoses The Ishboshet question was already asked. The Na"Ch question was already asked. The Torah question as the basis for the Na"Ch question was already asked. Between all three of those, I think the question is covered. – Seth J Mar 07 '12 at 14:45
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    @SethJ, Isn't this a natural follow-on of points raised in the Ishboshet question? – Isaac Moses Mar 07 '12 at 14:51
  • @IsaacMoses IMO it would require a lot of editing to make it a valuable stand-alone question. The question of inerrancy has been addressed, the question of Ishboshet's name has been addressed. If he wants to call into question the inerrancy of TaNa"Ch based on his interpretation of the Ishboshet question (and answers), I think he has to first establish that his interpretation is correct. Even then he is arguing, not asking, so I would still close it as not constructive or not a real question, or possibly even off-topic, as I'm sure there are other forums that address it (Hermeneutics.SE?). – Seth J Mar 07 '12 at 15:17
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    @SethJ, what do you think now? – msh210 Mar 07 '12 at 15:30
  • @msh210 I think it's a lot better now. You have an answer? The question is now on Rashi rather than on all Judaism, though. Do you think that's the intent, or do you think it's the way it needs to be for the question to stand? – Seth J Mar 07 '12 at 16:27
  • @SethJ, I guess that's the intent. – msh210 Mar 07 '12 at 18:38
  • I am aware that other explanation is also possible. I am learning. It's just that this is the most popular explanation namely that the writer/editor of the bible deliberately wrote a wrong name, which doesn't sound very honest to me. But again, it's possible that ishbaal himself call himself ishbal in which case there is no problem. But still, we don't know that for sure do we? – user4951 Mar 09 '12 at 11:20
  • @msh210 that's NOT the intent. My intent is not showing you're wrong. My intent is to get explanation. – user4951 Mar 14 '12 at 09:51
  • In christianity copies of gospel said that pilate offer to free jesus barabas. Latter copy simply erase jesus out of jesus barabas to avoid "confusion". We call that http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pious_fraud . – user4951 Mar 14 '12 at 09:57

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This example does not seem to be one of Biblical errancy. Rashi was saying that the author of this particular work within the Bible chose a derogatory nickname, replacing Baal for the negative Boshet. (Or perhaps even contemporaries of Ish Boshet called him that.) Rashi was not saying that scribes edited out Ish Boshet and replaced the original Biblical text.

josh waxman
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  • see the Malbim quoted here as well: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ish-bosheth#The_other_name:_Ashba.27al – Menachem Mar 07 '12 at 17:01
  • Okay so we don't know for sure? Also does that mean the author of bible deliberately wrote false name? That sounds a lot like lying to me. – user4951 Mar 09 '12 at 11:18
  • What do you mean "we don't know for sure"? Did you read Rashi inside in Hebrew to get the sense of his words? This is one commentator's explanation. There was no one author of the Bible. The book of Shmuel was traditionally authored by Shmuel the prophet. Is it lying if I refer to George Bush as Dubya? If I call General Patreus "G. Betray Us"? Is it lying if, out of misplaced religious scruples, write Ado-shem instead of Adonai? If I refer disparagingly to males I look down upon as "those who pisseth against the wall", if in fact they use outhouses? Scholars of literature understand this. – josh waxman Mar 09 '12 at 15:25
  • Now that makes sense. Thanks for explanation. Still another question should be ask, why Saul named his son Ishbal? Does saul worship baal? – user4951 Mar 14 '12 at 09:53
  • Fascinating question. I would answer: (a) perhaps, though one would expect the Biblical text to mention it; (b) Saul had concubines (see e.g. 2 Sam 3:7), so maybe they worshiped Baal; (c) perhaps Baal just means 'lord' or 'master' (see Hosea), in which case it is a reference to Hashem, yet triggered editing / nicknaming by a Biblical author. One would need to make this work in harmony with the present Q/A, though. See here: http://books.google.com/books?id=TjcpAAAAYAAJ&lpg=PA32&ots=5-NH_wOXdk&dq=ishbaal%20saul%20idolatry&pg=PA32#v=onepage&q=ishbaal%20saul%20idolatry&f=false – josh waxman Mar 15 '12 at 00:13