Why does Rashi say that this verse is the source for "majority rule" in cases of doubt in halacha? This verse doesn’t mean that "we shall incline after the majority" according to the majority of English translators (ironically disagreeing with the Jewish belief).
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1Duplicate: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/128719/31534? Do note, the majority rule is only in cases of doubt. Do we doubt that there is a majority rule in halacha? – Rabbi Kaii Mar 19 '24 at 20:38
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I have suggested an edit, hit the revisions button and "rollback" your previous, or modify it yourself if you don't like it – Rabbi Kaii Mar 19 '24 at 20:45
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Do note that in disputes regarding Jewish Law, we do not consider non-Jews' opinions relevant. If this is considered arrogant, please bear in mind that 2000 years ago, the whole world was bowing to pagan idols, and they also called the Jews arrogant, but now we will all admit that the Jewish monotheistic system of service of God was, despite being in the vast minority, correct – Rabbi Kaii Mar 20 '24 at 10:25