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In this Talmudic passage, which opinion prevails on the law according to the Talmud, Hillel's or Shammai's?

"Rav Ḥisda raised an objection from a mishna (Nidda 64b). With regard to a young girl whose time to see the flow of menstrual blood has not arrived, as she has not yet reached puberty, and she married, Beit Shammai say: One gives her four nights during which she may engage in intercourse, as any blood is attributed to the ruptured hymen. Beit Hillel say: There is no limit. Rather, any blood she sees is attributed to the ruptured hymen until the wound heals."(Ketubot 6a)

Rabbi Kaii
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Ootsutsuki
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    Related:https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/77932/when-is-the-halacha-like-bais-shammai-and-not-bais-hillel – יהושע ק Apr 13 '23 at 21:20
  • I read the post, but it didn't answer my specific question. Maimonides (Hilchot Issurei Biah 5:19) seems to follow Shammai. But the Talmud? – Ootsutsuki Apr 13 '23 at 21:29
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    The question on the Rambam seems more interesting. Why is he holding like Beit Shammai? – Avraham Apr 13 '23 at 23:00
  • There is a general rule that we hold like Beit Hillel and not like Beit Shammei with 6 exceptions, and this is not one of them. So the question is why the Rambam holds like the latter, not how we hold – יהושע ק Apr 14 '23 at 11:57
  • I still don't know why you are so fixated on this subject. – N.T. Apr 16 '23 at 07:08
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    I'm not sure what you mean "according to the Talmud." The gemara there doesn't give a psak. So presumably it should be the default rule that the halakhah is like Biet Hillel. But when the Rambam gives a psak he isn't "arguing" on the talmud; he is (ostensibly at least) telling you what he thinks the Talmud's conclusion is. – Avraham Apr 16 '23 at 13:18
  • By "according to the Talmud", I mean according to the Halakhah. – Ootsutsuki Apr 18 '23 at 19:15
  • @Ootsutsuki "By 'according to the Talmud', I mean according to the Halakhah." So why not state so explicitly in the question? – Tamir Evan May 05 '23 at 04:58

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