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In Devarim 6:8 Rashi says, והיו לטטפת בין עיניך: אלו תפילין שבראש ועל שם מנין פרשיותיהם נקראו טטפת. טט בכתפי שתים, פת באפריקי שתים:

Rashi's English translation is: and they shall be for ornaments between your eyes: Heb. לְטֹטָפֹת. These are the tefillin of the head, and because of the number of the Scriptural sections contained in them [namely four], they are called טֹטָפֹת - totafoth, for טַט - tat in Coptic means “two,” פַּת - path in Afriki (Phrygian) [also] means “two.” (San. 4b)

  1. Is this the few instances where we see that a word in the Holy Torah is actually borrowed from 2 other languages? ( Coptic and Afriki)
  2. If yes, then why did the Torah need to borrow the words instead of coming up with a word in classical hebrew?
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    related at least https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/68585/why-does-the-torah-use-the-non-hebrew-word-totafot – rosends Aug 12 '22 at 18:19
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    First question might be a duplicate of this: https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/116876/is-there-a-list-of-non-hebrew-words-and-names-in-the-torah. – Harel13 Aug 14 '22 at 04:38

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