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If two people have intercourse, can it sometimes be considered that they are now married on some level, or in any sense? I don't remember the sources, but there is a concept that a man gives a part of himself, or his soul, don't remember the exact term, to a woman when they have intercourse. My questions are:

  1. Does the woman also give a part of her soul to the man she sleeps with?
  2. Can intercourse be considered marriage without them getting married, or even any talk of marriage, if on a spiritual level, intercourse means you are physically united as one, and marriage is meant to be that on a spiritual level, so if there is also some exchange on a spiritual, soul-level from intercourse only, then have any chazal ruled that intercourse is akin to marriage in any sense? Or are there no opinions that state anything of the sort?

If not, an equally helpful way to approach the question would be, "What is the spiritual status and change of a man and woman who have intercourse, but are not married, in a scenario when they are in love but not married, and maybe can't get married for circumstances outside their control, and also, in a scenario when they are not in love?"

Thank you

ShipBuilding
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    There is no need of a Rabbi for a marriage. Only two witnesses ar needed. An intercourse that appened without marrital intention is nothing from marrital point of view. That is called Biat Zenut. – kouty Apr 04 '22 at 05:37
  • Thanks. Can you translate Biat Zenut (with short summary if meaning is not clear from its name?) Maybe I should change the question to, "what is the spiritual status of a man and woman who have intercourse, but are not married?" – ShipBuilding Apr 04 '22 at 05:39
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    There is no Jewish notion of transient marriage. I.e. all marriage is permanent. Therefore, if cohabitation is done with the intention that this act will create marriage, then the two are married. If not, then they are not, even if the couple lives together for many years. This is the halachah. Kabbalah never disagrees with halachah, it only provides an inner rationale. – pcoz Apr 04 '22 at 05:46
  • It's not allowwed to make marriage by intercourse, from a rabbinical prohibition. Zenut addresses sexual intercourse without marrital intention in this case. – kouty Apr 04 '22 at 05:47
  • https://www.sefaria.org.il/Shulchan_Arukh%2C_Even_HaEzer.26.1?ven=Wikisource_English_Shulchan_Aruch&vhe=Apei_Ravrevei:_Shulchan_Aruch_Even_HaEzer,_Lemberg,_1886&lang=bi – kouty Apr 04 '22 at 05:49
  • https://www.sefaria.org.il/Shulchan_Arukh%2C_Even_HaEzer.26.4?ven=Wikisource_English_Shulchan_Aruch&vhe=Apei_Ravrevei:_Shulchan_Aruch_Even_HaEzer,_Lemberg,_1886&lang=bi&with=all&lang2=en – kouty Apr 04 '22 at 05:49
  • https://www.sefaria.org.il/Shulchan_Arukh%2C_Even_HaEzer.33.1?ven=Sefaria_Community_Translation&vhe=Apei_Ravrevei:_Shulchan_Aruch_Even_HaEzer,_Lemberg,_1886&lang=he&with=all&lang2=he – kouty Apr 04 '22 at 05:52
  • @kouty Thanks kouty, great sources. https://www.sefaria.org.il/Shulchan_Arukh%2C_Even_HaEzer.26.4?ven=Wikisource_English_Shulchan_Aruch&vhe=Apei_Ravrevei:_Shulchan_Aruch_Even_HaEzer,_Lemberg,_1886&lang=bi&with=all&lang2=en does mention it can happen, but man has to receive lashes. That's the second link. Can you or anyone share the ruling of the third link you shared? It has no english translation on sefaria and my Hebrew is poor. – ShipBuilding Apr 04 '22 at 06:20
  • @ShipBuilding https://www.sefaria.org.il/Shulchan_Arukh%2C_Even_HaEzer.33.2?ven=Sefaria_Community_Translation&vhe=Apei_Ravrevei:_Shulchan_Aruch_Even_HaEzer,_Lemberg,_1886&lang=bi&with=all&lang2=he the link is translated here – kouty Apr 04 '22 at 06:22
  • Related https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/115398/history-of-extramarital-relations/115399#115399 – יהושע ק Apr 04 '22 at 09:57
  • @kouty tyvm! So is there any case where they have sex, with no witnesses, no documents, but they are married from the sex alone? Or, what is the spiritual change from the sex alone between two people who love each other, let's say? They never get married. Never any witnesses. Never any documents. But they had sex once fully in love, but then life tore them apart, the Berlin wall came up between them or something like that. What is the spiritual change in them? Women receives aspect of the man's soul, but not vice versa, or what? Which aspect of the soul does she receive? – ShipBuilding Apr 04 '22 at 23:46
  • @kouty Or let me ask like this.What if the man is torn?What if 1 aspect of him fully loves the woman enough to marry, but his yetzer hara prefers the single life, and, what if the aspect of him that loves her is the aspect that is given to her during intercourse?So they have intercourse once, both with love for each other, but afterwards, he no longer loves,that aspect of him is in her now, leaving him with only his yetzer hara?

    I.e maybe he's such a sinner overall, his love for her was his only good aspect, & the only atonement Hashem grants him is to live on in her.

    Whats that called?

     – ShipBuilding Apr 04 '22 at 23:51
  • @kouty not necessarily to live on in her through a child created by that intercourse, but to live on through her. Maybe later she marries a different man, and has a child with him, and the one spark she got from the first man is an ibur in the child, and he lives on that way. But before she ever has a child, what is it called when his only good aspect, the same aspect that loved her, transfers to her during loving intercourse? Do we say this is a spiritual marriage to some degree, but with a divorce afterwards, or how can we think of it? – ShipBuilding Apr 04 '22 at 23:55

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