Similar to this quesion, I have been bothered for a while now with the following question: How is it that the Talmud was written with no indication at all between drashos gemuros and asmachtos?
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May I ask why you expect such an indication to exist? – robev Dec 05 '21 at 07:43
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@robev because the ramifications are big. – Hershy S. Dec 06 '21 at 00:33