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Looking at this phrase from Jeremiah 31:31-33: I wondered what it means when it says: "New" and "Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers". What's new about this covenant? And what part is not according/comparable to the covenant G-d made with their fathers?"

And my main question: “Why not make such a covenant the first time around, why does a ‘new’ one has to be made ‘not according to that which He made with our fathers’?

Dov
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Y.Talmid
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    Doesn't verse 33 answer the new nature of the covenant? "I will put My Teaching into their inmost being and inscribe it upon their hearts" as opposed to being an external construct that had to be taught (as per 34 "No longer will they need to teach one another "). The nature of the people will change so the nature of the transmission will change. – rosends Nov 03 '20 at 21:56
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    Passuk 34 is interesting. וְלֹ֧א יְלַמְּד֣וּ ע֗וֹד אִ֣ישׁ אֶת־רֵעֵ֜הוּ וְאִ֤ישׁ אֶת־אָחִיו֙ לֵאמֹ֔ר דְּע֖וּ אֶת־יְהוָ֑ה כִּֽי־כוּלָּם֩ יֵדְע֨וּ אוֹתִ֜י לְמִקְטַנָּ֤ם וְעַד־גְּדוֹלָם֙ נְאֻם־יְהוָ֔ה כִּ֤י אֶסְלַח֙ לַֽעֲוֺנָ֔ם וּלְחַטָּאתָ֖ם לֹ֥א אֶזְכָּר־עֽוֹד׃ (ס)

    No longer will they need to teach one another and say to one another, “Heed the LORD”; for all of them, from the least of them to the greatest, shall heed Me—declares the LORD. This seems to imply that the new covenant is one which will be whole at the individual level (and unreliant on a national social contract).

     – The GRAPKE Nov 03 '20 at 22:54

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