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Isaiah lived in a time of righteous kings, with the exception of Achaz. Why was he foretelling a destruction? It seems clear from the texts that the cause of the final destruction was Menashe, who is not even listed in the opening verse. We find a foretelling of destruction in chapter 6, which seems like an inaugurating prophecy and according to Midrash, this was way before Menashe, at the time of Uziyahu.

Add to this the fact that our sages describe Chizkiyahu as someone worthy of being Moshiach, how could it have been that bad then?

Mark
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It was a time of great torah knowledge but there was extensive avodah zara being done. See this gemorah in Sanhedrin which shows us that Menashe was very knowledgeable but still practiced avodah zara so Isaiah had what to base his negative prophecy on. But keep in mind, a prophet got his prophecy from the Almighty so it wasn't his own doing to begin with.

Geltman
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