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In regards to this question of mine I would like to ask:

In Genesis/Bereshit 18:10 it seems that one of the men/angels visiting Avraham is saying that Sarah will give birth to a son, while in Genesis 18:14 it’s G-d speaking. At least that’s how some like Rashi or the Rashbam seem to explain it:

But why would G-d speak through one of the messengers/angels in one case, but personally in another, while speaking about the exact same matter? If these angels are speaking and acting through the agency of G-d (like a shaliach), why couldn’t they speak out those words on behalf of G-d the second time as well? I’m not doubting what Rashi and the Rashbam say about these verses, I’m just trying to figure out why this would be the case (why G-d Himself speaks directly the second time around in opposite to the first time this message is delivered).

If someone could help explain the logic behind it, that would be great.

Levi
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  • https://web.archive.org/web/20080509162804/http://www.math.wustl.edu/~msh210/torah_vayera.html – msh210 Nov 18 '19 at 19:40
  • @msh210 It’s a answer, but I’m not sure what to think of it: from verse 1 it seems that HaShem was already with Avraham, although that could be just an introduction to what’s described next; which in such a case would place the appearance of HaShem in verse 13 or 17. Might be worth to place this as a answer with a little bit more explanation. – Levi Nov 21 '19 at 17:36

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