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Following question of "why-is-a-greek-torah-scroll-kosher", the Mishna in Meggila 1.8 reads:

אֵין בֵּין סְפָרִים לִתְפִלִּין וּמְזוּזוֹת אֶלָּא שֶׁהַסְּפָרִים נִכְתָּבִין בְּכָל לָשׁוֹן... רַבָּן שִׁמְעוֹן בֶּן גַּמְלִיאֵל אוֹמֵר, אַף בַּסְּפָרִים לֹא הִתִּירוּ שֶׁיִּכָּתְבוּ אֶלָּא יְוָנִית:

There is no difference between BOOKS [of the Tanakh] and tefillin and mezuzahs except that BOOKS may be written in any language ... Rabban Shimon ben Gamaliel says that scrolls [of the Tanakh] were permitted to be written only in Greek.

How is a Kosher Torah scroll written in Greek - is there an accepted unified Nosach or does anyone translate as he sees fit? Does one use the Greek Alphabet or Ashurit? Do all the rules of writing a Hebrew-language Sefer Torah (Rambam ibid 7) apply to it also (lines, spacing, big and small letters, omitted and extra letters?


I don't ask if there's masora as in the related question. Since the Mishna states it is possible I'd like to know how possible it WAS done.

Al Berko
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I am not aware of any specific directions. It seems that the Septuagint was the model of an acceptable Torah in Greek.

It seems that essentially any good translation would be acceptable, as Moshe Himself wrote the Torah in all 70 languages (as per G-d's command) Devarim 1:5.

בְּעֵבֶר הַיַּרְדֵּן בְּאֶרֶץ מוֹאָב הוֹאִיל מֹשֶׁה בֵּאֵר אֶת־הַתּוֹרָה הַזֹּאת לֵאמֹר׃

On the other side of the Jordan, in the land of Moab, Moses undertook to expound this Teaching. He said:

באר את התורה. בְּשִׁבְעִים לָשׁוֹן פֵּרְשָׁהּ לָהֶם (תנחומא; ע' סוטה ל"ב):

באר את התורה [MOSES BEGAN] TO EXPLAIN THIS LAW — in the seventy languages of the ancient world did he explain it to them (Midrash Tanchuma, Devarim 2; Genesis Rabbah 49; cf. Sotah 32a and Rashi on Deuteronomy 27:8).

And commanded Yehoshua to do the same Devarim 27:8 with Rashi:

וְכָתַבְתָּ עַל־הָאֲבָנִים אֶת־כָּל־דִּבְרֵי הַתּוֹרָה הַזֹּאת בַּאֵר הֵיטֵב׃ (ס)

And on those stones you shall inscribe every word of this Teaching most distinctly.

באר היטב EXPLAINING THEM WELL — i.e. in seventy languages (Sotah 32a; cf. Rashi on Deuteronomy 1:5).

However, as the clarity of languages (and perhaps understanding of Torah) declined, only the Septuagint was considered an authoritative translation.

There was also a time when the Torah would be written in the Ivri script instead of the Ashuri script. Today this is not allowed.

It seems that the possibility was legislated away, but not absolutely impossible.

  • Didn’t mordechai (along with all anshei Knesset hagedola) know all 70 languages? – Lo ani Oct 07 '19 at 20:21
  • @Lo ani Yes, and they were before the Septuagint. In the days of Mordechai it would presumably still be permitted to write a Torah in other languages. – Benyomin Walters Oct 07 '19 at 20:23
  • But there were probably some people that still knew at least one of the languages. Especially since the Chachamim say that the Sefer can be written in any language. – Lo ani Oct 07 '19 at 20:26
  • @Lo ani I don't think the problem was merely strict translation, but a lack of people's ability to translate and appreciate the Torah's innate holiness and true message in many forms. Therefore, it was standardized to help prevent corruption of its message. – Benyomin Walters Oct 07 '19 at 20:29
  • Then why could it be translated to any language, according to the tana Kama? – Lo ani Oct 07 '19 at 20:31
  • @Lo ani Inherently it can be written in any language. Rabban Gamliel seemed to feel that the ability should be restricted, except for Greek because of the Septuagint. The halacha, follows Rabban Shimon ben Gamliel. Today, the law prohibits Greek as well. – Benyomin Walters Oct 07 '19 at 20:36
  • Maybe according to Rabban Shimon Ben Gamliel, nowadays we can still write it in Greek, still because of the Septuagint? – Lo ani Oct 07 '19 at 20:45
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    Perhaps, but it is not the accepted halacha. Mishneh Torah, Tefillin, Mezuzah and the Torah Scroll 1:19 Phylacteries and Mezuzoth may only be written in square Hebrew script. Permission was also given to write scrolls of the Law in Greek characters but not in those of any other foreign tongue. The ancient Greek script has gone out of use, been corrupted and become obsolete. Hence, at the present day, all three religious articles,—Scroll of the Law, Tephillin and Mezuzah,—are only written in the square Hebrew script. – Benyomin Walters Oct 07 '19 at 20:46
  • Are you saying "It seems that essentially any good translation would be acceptable" just because Moses could write it [prophetically] in Greek? – Al Berko Oct 07 '19 at 21:16
  • I am saying that the essential law is that a Torah may be written in any proper translation, as the Tanna Kama says in the Mishnah. This is learned from Moshe writing the Torah, and instructing us to do so upon entering the land. However, later sages restricted this, permitting only in Greek, and then only in Hebrew. This restriction is for whatever reason, but it is not a gezerias hakasuv about a Torah. – Benyomin Walters Oct 07 '19 at 21:24
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    The accepted halacha is still that we can write it in Greek. We just don't know how to. But if we dug up e.g. a Sefer Torah in Greek with a document signed by Rabban Shimon ben Gamliel testifying that it's kosher, we could copy it. On the other hand, if we dug up a Sefer Torah in some other language with a document signed by Mordechai we couldn't copy it, because that's an actual derabbanan. – Heshy Oct 07 '19 at 21:34